A patient has been taking ergotamine to relieve their migraines. Which of the following adverse effects would indicate to the nurse that the drug may have entered into toxic levels?
Diarrhea
Delirium
Hypotension
Bradycardia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
A. Diarrhea is not typically associated with ergotamine toxicity. Gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting are more common adverse effects of ergotamine use.
B. Delirium is a potential sign of ergotamine toxicity. At toxic levels, ergotamine can cause central nervous system symptoms such as confusion, hallucinations, and delirium.
C. Hypotension may occur as an adverse effect of ergotamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties. However, hypotension alone may not indicate ergotamine toxicity.
D. Bradycardia is not a typical adverse effect of ergotamine. Ergotamine is more commonly associated with vasoconstriction and can lead to hypertension or tachycardia rather than bradycardia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before: While lack of previous surgery experience may contribute to anxiety, it doesn't inherently increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
B. The 40-year-old patient who is to have kidney stone removed: While the type of surgery may influence anesthesia considerations, being 40 years old alone doesn't significantly increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
C. The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal: Advanced age is a significant risk factor for altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in physiology, metabolism, and drug clearance.
D. The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago: While smoking history can impact anesthesia considerations, stopping smoking 8 years ago likely reduces the associated risks compared to current smokers.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]
Explanation
A. Oral contraceptives: Phenobarbital can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of contraceptive failure and unintended pregnancy.
B. Antihistamines: While phenobarbital can induce hepatic enzymes, leading to increased
metabolism of some antihistamines, this interaction is less clinically significant compared to the interactions with oral contraceptives, opioids, and diuretics.
C. Warfarin: Phenobarbital can induce the metabolism of warfarin, potentially reducing its anticoagulant effects and necessitating closer monitoring of international normalized ratio (INR) levels.
D. Opioids: Phenobarbital can increase the metabolism of opioids, leading to reduced analgesic effects and potentially causing inadequate pain control.
E. Diuretics: Phenobarbital can accelerate the metabolism of diuretics, potentially reducing their efficacy and necessitating adjustments in dosage or monitoring of electrolyte levels.
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