A patient has fallen and injured her knee.
It is not fractured, but there is considerable swelling and pain.
She asks which over-the-counter analgesic would be best to take for her discomfort.
The nurse tells her that one with NSAID properties would be best.
Which would it be best to take?
oxymorphone.
ibuprofen.
Acetaminophen.
aspirin.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Oxymorphone is not an NSAID (Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug). It is an opioid analgesic, which is used for more severe pain relief. It is not suitable for managing swelling and pain caused by an injury.
Choice B rationale:
Ibuprofen is an NSAID and is an appropriate choice for managing pain and swelling associated with injuries like the patient's knee injury. NSAIDs work by reducing inflammation, which can help alleviate pain and discomfort in such cases.
Choice C rationale:
Acetaminophen is not an NSAID. It is classified as an analgesic and antipyretic, and while it can help with pain relief, it may not be as effective in reducing inflammation, which is essential in cases of swelling due to an injury.
Choice D rationale:
Aspirin is an NSAID, but it is not the best choice for this patient. Aspirin is known to have a higher risk of gastrointestinal side effects, and there are other NSAIDs like ibuprofen that are generally preferred for pain management and inflammation without the same level of side effects.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication (NSAID). It is commonly used to reduce inflammation and relieve pain, making it a suitable choice for pain management in conditions where inflammation plays a role, such as arthritis or musculoskeletal injuries.
Choice B rationale:
Indomethacin is not typically categorized as an adjuvant analgesic. Adjuvant analgesics are medications that are not primarily designed for pain relief but may enhance the effects of analgesics when used in combination.
Choice C rationale:
Indomethacin is not a COX-2 inhibitor. COX-2 inhibitors are a specific class of NSAIDs that target the COX-2 enzyme while sparing COX-1. Indomethacin is a traditional NSAID that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2.
Choice D rationale:
Indomethacin is not a narcotic analgesic. Narcotic analgesics, also known as opioids, are a separate class of medications used for the management of moderate to severe pain. Indomethacin does not belong to this class and has a different mechanism of action.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice C rationale:
The most crucial instruction regarding the safety of fentanyl patches is to apply them as directed by the primary care provider. Fentanyl is a potent opioid medication, and its misuse or improper application can lead to serious health risks, including overdose. Therefore, following the prescriber's instructions is of utmost importance to ensure the patient's safety.
Choice A rationale:
Storing fentanyl patches in a locked cabinet is a good practice to prevent unauthorized access and to keep them out of reach of children or individuals who should not have access to the medication. However, it is not the most critical safety instruction. Proper application and usage are more important.
Choice B rationale:
While preparing the skin by cleaning with an antiseptic scrub solution is a necessary step when applying a transdermal medication like a fentanyl patch, it is not the most critical safety instruction. It is a standard part of the application process but does not address the overarching safety concerns related to fentanyl use.
Choice D rationale:
Using fentanyl patches as needed for breakthrough pain without clear guidance from a healthcare provider is not a safe practice. Fentanyl is a potent medication with a high risk of overdose, and its use should always be closely monitored and directed by a healthcare professional. Self-adjusting the dosage without medical supervision can lead to serious safety issues.
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