A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit after a motor vehicle accident. On the second day of hospital admission, the patient develops acute renal failure. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, but renal replacement therapy is needed to manage the patient's hypervolemia and hyperkalemia. Which of the following therapies will the patient's hemodynamic status best tolerate?
Hemodialysis
Peritoneal dialysis
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD)
Plasmapheresis
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Hemodialysis rapidly removes fluid and solutes, which can cause significant hemodynamic shifts, including hypotension, in unstable patients. It involves high blood flow rates and ultrafiltration, stressing the cardiovascular system. For a hemodynamically unstable patient with acute renal failure, hemodialysis is less suitable due to its potential to exacerbate hypotension and circulatory collapse.
Choice B reason: Peritoneal dialysis uses the peritoneal membrane for slow fluid and solute exchange, which is gentler on hemodynamics. However, it is less efficient for rapid correction of hypervolemia and hyperkalemia in acute renal failure. It also carries risks of peritonitis and is impractical in critically ill patients with abdominal trauma or instability.
Choice C reason: Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD) is ideal for hemodynamically unstable patients. It provides slow, continuous fluid and solute removal, minimizing cardiovascular stress. CVVHD effectively manages hypervolemia and hyperkalemia in acute renal failure by maintaining steady-state clearance, reducing the risk of hypotension compared to intermittent hemodialysis, making it the best choice.
Choice D reason: Plasmapheresis removes plasma components, not fluid or electrolytes like potassium, and is used for conditions like autoimmune disorders, not acute renal failure. It does not address hypervolemia or hyperkalemia and can cause hemodynamic instability due to rapid plasma exchange, making it inappropriate for this patient’s needs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B","dropdown-group-3":"D"}
Explanation
When assessing a client with suspected ventilatory failure, potential indicators include decreased PaO2, increased heart rate, and increased PaCO2.
A. Decreased PaO2 is a key indicator of ventilatory failure. The client’s PaO2 levels of 60 mmHg at 1030 and 55 mmHg at 1200, compared to the reference range of 75-100 mmHg, show impaired oxygen exchange, reflecting inadequate ventilation. This aligns with the client’s low oxygen saturation (88% and 85%) and symptoms like dyspnea and accessory muscle use, indicating respiratory distress.
B. Increased heart rate is another indicator. The client’s heart rate rose from 110/min at 1030 to 115/min at 1200, above normal ranges, suggesting a compensatory response to hypoxia and respiratory distress. This tachycardia, coupled with symptoms like fatigue and difficulty speaking, supports ventilatory failure as the body attempts to meet oxygen demands, aligning with Maslow’s physiological needs for oxygenation.
C. High oxygen saturation is not an indicator of ventilatory failure. The client’s oxygen saturation is low (88% at 1030, 85% at 1200), which is consistent with ventilatory failure, not high saturation. High oxygen saturation would suggest adequate oxygenation, contradicting the client’s clinical presentation of wheezing, decreased breath sounds, and low PaO2.
D. Increased PaCO2 is a hallmark of ventilatory failure. The client’s PaCO2 levels of 54 mmHg at 1030 and 58 mmHg at 1200, above the reference range of 35-45 mmHg, indicate CO2 retention due to inadequate ventilation. This, along with the client’s respiratory acidosis (pH 7.32 and 7.30) and symptoms like increased respiratory rate and fatigue, confirms ventilatory failure.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pain medication is important for burn patients due to severe pain from exposed nerve endings. However, in the ABCDE approach, circulation (fluid status) takes precedence over pain management. A 30% burn causes significant fluid loss, risking hypovolemic shock, making IV fluids the priority to stabilize the patient before addressing pain.
Choice B reason: A 30% burn injury to the lower extremities causes significant plasma leakage, leading to hypovolemia and potential shock. Administering IV fluids, typically via the Parkland formula, restores intravascular volume, maintains blood pressure, and ensures organ perfusion. In the ABCDE approach, circulation is prioritized, making fluid resuscitation the first intervention.
Choice C reason: Cleaning and dressing burn wounds prevent infection, a major complication due to loss of the skin barrier. However, this is not the immediate priority in the acute phase. Fluid resuscitation addresses life-threatening hypovolemia first, as per the ABCDE approach, ensuring circulatory stability before wound care is initiated.
Choice D reason: A tetanus booster prevents infection from Clostridium tetani, especially in contaminated burns. While important, it is not the first priority in the acute management of a 30% burn. Fluid resuscitation addresses immediate life-threatening hypovolemia, which takes precedence over prophylactic measures like tetanus vaccination in the ABCDE framework.
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