A patient is ordered 1 mg of Morphine IV push. The medication is supplied in vials 2 mg/1 mL. What should the nurse administer? (round to the nearest tenth)
The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]
To administer the correct dose of Morphine, the nurse needs to calculate the volume of medication to deliver 1 mg of Morphine. Since the medication is supplied in a concentration of 2 mg per 1 mL, the nurse would administer half of the volume of the vial to provide the ordered 1 mg dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL of Morphine to the patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Expecting a patient to display preinjury personality traits may not be feasible, as head injuries can lead to permanent personality changes.
B. Actively participating in rehabilitation is a realistic goal that focuses on the patient's engagement in the recovery process, which can improve functional outcomes.
C. Returning to a specific job, such as a corporate attorney, may not be a realistic goal initially and depends on the extent of cognitive recovery.
D. Recalling childhood events is not a priority goal in rehabilitation; functional and recovery-focused goals are more relevant.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Penicillins are generally safe but are not specific for ototoxicity considerations.
B. Aminoglycosides are avoided in cases of tympanic membrane rupture due to their ototoxic potential, which can lead to hearing loss.
C. Fluoroquinolones, particularly those formulated for otic use, are preferred for tympanic membrane ruptures as they are not ototoxic and are safe for middle ear exposure.
D. Cephalosporins are not typically ototoxic but are less commonly used for tympanic membrane ruptures compared to fluoroquinolones.
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