A patient is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) 325 mg, 2 tablets PO every 6 hours. How many grams is the patient receiving in 24 hours?
(Number Only, do not type in gram or g with your answer)
The Correct Answer is ["2.6"]
Step 1: Calculate the total mg per dose. 325 mg × 2 tablets = 650 mg
Step 2: Calculate the number of doses in 24 hours. 24 hours ÷ 6 hours = 4 doses
Step 3: Calculate the total mg in 24 hours. 650 mg × 4 doses = 2600 mg
Step 4: Convert mg to grams. 2600 mg ÷ 1000 = 2.6
Answer: 2.6
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Lesions may extend to hairline or neck.
Choice A rationale:
Central clearing is not a prominent indicator of Tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp and hair shafts, commonly caused by dermatophytes like Trichophyton species. The characteristic features include scaling, erythema, pustules, and hair loss. Unlike some other fungal infections, Tinea capitis does not typically have central clearing.
Choice B rationale:
Lesions extending to the hairline or neck is a correct aspect to include in education about Tinea capitis. The infection usually starts as small, scaly patches on the scalp and can progress to larger areas. It can extend to the hairline, neck, and even eyebrows and eyelashes. This is important information to convey to ensure proper recognition and timely treatment.
Choice C rationale:
Transmission of Tinea capitis mostly occurs from human-to-human rather than from dogs. While some animals can carry fungal infections that affect the skin, Tinea capitis is primarily spread through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated objects like combs, hats, and pillows.
Choice D rationale:
The appearance of Tinea capitis is not usually unilateral. This condition often presents with multiple, scattered areas of involvement on the scalp. It can cause varying degrees of inflammation, scaling, and hair loss in different areas, which may not follow a unilateral pattern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choice B: Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy.
Choice A rationale:
Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect because it includes "aortic hypertrophy" and "left ventricular hypertrophy," which are not components of the tetralogy of Fallot. Aortic hypertrophy is not a recognized structural defect in tetralogy of Fallot, and left ventricular hypertrophy is not a characteristic feature of this congenital heart condition.
Choice B rationale:
Pulmonic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. This is the correct choice. Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by four specific structural defects: pulmonic stenosis (narrowing of the pulmonary valve), ventricular septal defect (hole between the right and left ventricles), overriding aorta (aorta positioned over the ventricular septal defect, receiving blood from both ventricles), and right ventricular hypertrophy (enlargement of the right ventricle due to increased workload).
Choice C rationale:
Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect because it includes "aortic stenosis," which is not part of the tetralogy of Fallot. In tetralogy of Fallot, the stenosis occurs at the pulmonary valve, not the aortic valve.
Choice D rationale:
Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy. This choice is incorrect. While "overriding aorta" is present in tetralogy of Fallot, "atrial septal defect" and "left ventricular hypertrophy" are not part of this condition. Atrial septal defects involve a hole between the two atria, not the ventricles, and left ventricular hypertrophy is not typically seen in tetralogy of Fallot.
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