A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
Impaired gas exchange
Activity intolerance
Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
Impaired oral mucous membranes
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority in Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (now Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia). This opportunistic infection causes alveolar inflammation, reducing oxygen diffusion across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Hypoxemia results, impairing tissue oxygenation. Prioritizing gas exchange ensures adequate oxygen delivery to vital organs, addressing the life-threatening nature of this respiratory infection.
Choice B reason: Activity intolerance occurs in Pneumocystis pneumonia due to hypoxemia and fatigue from infection. While significant, it is secondary to impaired gas exchange, as oxygen delivery is critical for survival. Addressing hypoxemia through oxygen therapy or ventilation support takes precedence, as it directly impacts the patient’s ability to sustain physical activity.
Choice C reason: Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements may occur due to increased metabolic demands or poor appetite in Pneumocystis pneumonia. However, it is not the highest priority, as nutritional deficits are less immediately life-threatening than hypoxemia. Correcting gas exchange ensures oxygenation, which supports metabolic processes before addressing long-term nutritional needs.
Choice D reason: Impaired oral mucous membranes may result from opportunistic infections or treatment side effects in Pneumocystis pneumonia. While uncomfortable, it is not life-threatening compared to impaired gas exchange, which causes hypoxemia and risks organ failure. Addressing respiratory function is critical before managing secondary issues like oral health in this acute infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Active leg exercises promote venous return by activating the calf muscle pump, preventing blood stasis in the lower extremities. Stasis is a key component of Virchow’s triad, increasing the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. Regular movement enhances circulation, reducing clot formation in postoperative patients.
Choice B reason: Maintaining the head of the bed at 90 degrees does not directly reduce pulmonary embolism risk. While it may improve respiratory function, it does not address venous stasis or clot formation in the lower extremities, the primary source of pulmonary emboli. This position may also increase discomfort or orthostatic hypotension in some patients.
Choice C reason: Early ambulation enhances venous blood flow by engaging leg muscles, reducing stasis, a major risk factor for deep vein thrombosis and subsequent pulmonary embolism. Postoperative immobility increases clot formation risk, so mobilizing the client soon after surgery, when safe, significantly lowers the likelihood of thromboembolic events in the pulmonary vasculature.
Choice D reason: Aspirin and warfarin are anticoagulants that reduce clotting risk, but their use must be carefully considered due to bleeding risks in postoperative patients. They are not first-line interventions compared to mechanical methods like leg exercises or compression stockings. Their administration requires specific medical orders and monitoring, making them less immediate for prevention.
Choice E reason: Compression stockings apply graduated pressure to the legs, promoting venous return and preventing blood pooling, which reduces the risk of deep vein thrombosis formation. By counteracting stasis, they help prevent clots that could dislodge and cause a pulmonary embolism, making them an effective, non-invasive intervention for postoperative patients.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"D"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
The correct answers are:
- Immunoglobulin administration: Passive – Artificial Immunity
- Antibodies produced by body after exposure to live pathogen: Active – Natural Immunity
- Vaccine administration: Active – Artificial Immunity
- Antibodies passed from mother to fetus: Passive – Natural Immunity
- Antibodies produced by body after exposure to attenuated virus: Active – Artificial Immunity
A. Immunoglobulin administration involves injecting pre-formed antibodies from an external source, such as human or animal serum, to provide immediate but temporary protection. This does not stimulate the recipient’s immune system to produce antibodies or memory cells, aligning with passive – artificial immunity.
B. Exposure to a live pathogen triggers the body’s immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, conferring long-term protection. This natural process of immune activation matches active – natural immunity, as the body actively responds to the pathogen without artificial intervention.
C. Vaccine administration introduces attenuated or inactivated pathogens, prompting the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells without causing disease. This artificial induction of immunity aligns with active – artificial immunity, as it mimics natural infection but is deliberately administered.
D. Antibodies passed from mother to fetus, primarily immunoglobulin G (IgG) through the placenta, provide temporary protection to the newborn without active immune response. This natural transfer of antibodies corresponds to passive – natural immunity, as it occurs without medical intervention.
E. Exposure to an attenuated virus via vaccination stimulates the immune system to produce antibodies and memory cells, offering long-term protection. This controlled, artificial exposure aligns with active – artificial immunity, as it involves deliberate administration of a weakened pathogen to induce an immune response.
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