A patient who has undergone an esophagectomy for esophageal cancer develops increasing pain, fever, and dyspnea when a full liquid diet is started postoperatively. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most indicative of:

An intolerance to the feedings

Esophageal perforation with fistula formation into the lung

Extension of the tumor into the aorta

Leakage of fluids into the mediastinum

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. An intolerance to the feedings might cause discomfort, but it would not typically cause increasing pain, fever, and dyspnea. These symptoms are more indicative of a serious complication.
B. Esophageal perforation with fistula formation into the lung is the most likely cause of these symptoms. A perforation can lead to leakage of gastric contents into the pleural space or mediastinum, causing fever, pain, and respiratory distress. The formation of a fistula between the esophagus and the lung would lead to dyspnea.
C. Extension of the tumor into the aorta is a rare complication that would typically manifest with symptoms related to cardiovascular issues, not gastrointestinal symptoms like fever and dyspnea.
D. Leakage of fluids into the mediastinum is a possible cause of the symptoms, but esophageal perforation with a fistula into the lung is more directly linked to these specific symptoms, especially dyspnea.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "Moon phase" is not a correct term related to prednisone use. The term "moon face" refers to the round, puffy face that can result from prolonged steroid use, which is a side effect, but it is not something the patient needs to notify the healthcare provider about unless it is accompanied by other severe symptoms.
B. Taking the steroid medication as prescribed is essential. Prednisone is a corticosteroid, and missing doses or abruptly stopping the medication can lead to complications such as adrenal insufficiency. It's important for the client to adhere to the prescribed regimen to manage inflammation and minimize the risk of side effects.
C. Steroids like prednisone can cause increased blood glucose levels, so it's important for the client to monitor blood glucose more frequently. If blood glucose levels exceed 150 mg/dL, they should notify their healthcare provider, but this is not the immediate management strategy for this scenario.
D. Prednisone should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal irritation, not on an empty stomach. Taking it without food can increase the risk of stomach upset and ulcers, particularly in patients with inflammatory bowel disease.

A. Total loss of gastric enzymes B. Excess secretion of digestive enzymes in the intestines C. Rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine D. Excess glycogen production by the liver

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Total loss of gastric enzymes is not a primary cause of dumping syndrome. While gastric enzymes may be reduced following gastric surgery, the syndrome is primarily related to the way food moves through the digestive tract.
B. Excess secretion of digestive enzymes in the intestines does not directly cause dumping syndrome. Although enzyme levels can be affected by surgery, dumping syndrome is more about the timing and volume of food delivery to the intestines.
C. Rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine is the primary cause of dumping syndrome. This occurs because the normal regulatory mechanisms of the stomach are bypassed or disrupted after gastric resection, leading to a quick shift of food into the small intestine, which causes symptoms like nausea, diarrhea, and dizziness.
D. Excess glycogen production by the liver is not related to dumping syndrome. This would be more relevant to conditions affecting glucose metabolism, not gastrointestinal emptying.

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A patient who has undergone an esophagectomy for esophageal cancer develops increasing pain, fever, and dyspnea when a full liquid diet is started postoperatively. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most indicative of:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client diagnosed with type II diabetes is prescribed prednisone for an acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease. Which management strategy should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

As a result of gastric resection, the client is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. The nurse should prepare a plan of care for this client based on knowledge that this problem stems primarily from which of the following gastrointestinal changes?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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