A patient with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct and is unable to eat or drink without becoming nauseated and vomiting.
Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Amber urine.
Belching.
Flatulence.
Yellow sclera.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Amber urine can be a sign of dehydration, but it is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct.
While it's important to monitor hydration status in patients with nausea and vomiting, amber urine alone would not be the most urgent finding to report to the healthcare provider in this context.
Choice B rationale:
Belching is a common symptom of gastrointestinal disorders, but it is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone obstruction. It can be caused by various factors, such as swallowing air, eating too quickly, or drinking carbonated beverages.
While belching might be a symptom the nurse documents, it would not be the most concerning finding to report immediately.
Choice C rationale:
Flatulence is another common gastrointestinal symptom that can have various causes, including dietary choices, bacterial fermentation in the intestines, and certain medications.
It is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone obstruction and would not be the most relevant finding to prioritize reporting.
Choice D rationale:
Yellow sclera, also known as jaundice, is a significant finding that strongly suggests cholestasis, which is the obstruction of bile flow.
Bile, a fluid produced by the liver, aids in digestion and gives stool its brownish color.
When bile flow is obstructed, as in the case of a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct, bilirubin (a component of bile) builds up in the bloodstream and tissues, leading to yellowing of the skin and sclera (the whites of the eyes).
This is a crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider because it indicates a worsening of the patient's condition and the need for prompt intervention to address the obstruction.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Carbon dioxide is primarily eliminated through the lungs, not the kidneys. While the kidneys do play a role in acid-base balance, their primary mechanism for regulating pH is through the excretion or retention of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-), not carbon dioxide itself.
The kidneys' ability to compensate for respiratory acidosis is limited. In cases of severe respiratory acidosis, the kidneys may not be able to adequately compensate, leading to a further decrease in blood pH.
Choice B rationale:
Hyperventilation would actually decrease carbon dioxide levels in the blood, not increase them. Hyperventilation is a state of rapid, deep breathing that leads to increased exhalation of carbon dioxide. This can result in respiratory alkalosis, which is the opposite of respiratory acidosis.
Choice D rationale:
Low blood oxygen levels (hypoxia) can stimulate respiration, but this would not directly cause respiratory acidosis. In fact, hypoxia can sometimes lead to respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation.
Respiratory acidosis is primarily caused by impaired carbon dioxide elimination, not decreased oxygen levels.
Choice C rationale:
High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood (hypercapnia) are the hallmark feature of respiratory acidosis. This can occur due to a variety of factors that impair ventilation, such as:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Asthma
Pneumonia Sleep apnea
Neuromuscular disorders that affect breathing Drug overdose (e.g., opioids)
The accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to a decrease in blood pH, which can have a range of negative effects on the body's organ systems.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale:
Isoniazid's Mechanism of Action:
It targets and inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are essential components of the cell wall of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis.
By disrupting cell wall formation, isoniazid prevents bacterial growth and multiplication, leading to the suppression and eventual eradication of the infection.
Clinical Manifestations of Active TB:
Persistent cough, often productive of sputum (phlegm), is a hallmark symptom of TB. The sputum may contain blood or have a rusty-colored appearance.
Other common symptoms include fever, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. How Isoniazid Reduces Cough and Sputum:
As isoniazid effectively kills the TB bacteria, the inflammatory process within the lungs subsides.
This leads to a gradual decrease in the production of sputum, which is a direct result of the inflammatory response. Consequently, the frequency and severity of coughing episodes also diminish.
Monitoring Treatment Response:
Regular sputum smears and cultures are essential to assess the response to treatment.
A positive sputum smear indicates the presence of live TB bacteria, while a positive culture confirms their growth in the laboratory.
A gradual decrease in the number of bacteria seen on sputum smears, followed by negative cultures, signals a favorable response to treatment.
Timeframe for Improvement:
It's important to note that clinical improvement, including a reduction in cough and sputum, may not be immediately evident. It typically takes several weeks of consistent isoniazid therapy to achieve noticeable results.
Therefore, adherence to the prescribed treatment regimen is crucial for successful TB eradication. Addressing Other Choices:
Choice A: Decreased appetite and weight loss are often associated with active TB due to systemic inflammation and nutritional deficiencies. While isoniazid treatment may indirectly improve appetite and weight gain over time, these are not primary indicators of its effectiveness in suppressing the TB infection itself.
Choice C: Vertigo and tinnitus are potential side effects of isoniazid, but they do not reflect its efficacy in treating TB.
Choice D: A positive sputum smear and culture would indicate ongoing TB infection and a lack of response to treatment.
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