A patient with cholelithiasis has a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct and is unable to eat or drink without becoming nauseated and vomiting.
Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
Amber urine.
Belching.
Flatulence.
Yellow sclera.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Amber urine can be a sign of dehydration, but it is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct.
While it's important to monitor hydration status in patients with nausea and vomiting, amber urine alone would not be the most urgent finding to report to the healthcare provider in this context.
Choice B rationale:
Belching is a common symptom of gastrointestinal disorders, but it is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone obstruction. It can be caused by various factors, such as swallowing air, eating too quickly, or drinking carbonated beverages.
While belching might be a symptom the nurse documents, it would not be the most concerning finding to report immediately.
Choice C rationale:
Flatulence is another common gastrointestinal symptom that can have various causes, including dietary choices, bacterial fermentation in the intestines, and certain medications.
It is not specific to cholelithiasis with a gallstone obstruction and would not be the most relevant finding to prioritize reporting.
Choice D rationale:
Yellow sclera, also known as jaundice, is a significant finding that strongly suggests cholestasis, which is the obstruction of bile flow.
Bile, a fluid produced by the liver, aids in digestion and gives stool its brownish color.
When bile flow is obstructed, as in the case of a gallstone lodged in the common bile duct, bilirubin (a component of bile) builds up in the bloodstream and tissues, leading to yellowing of the skin and sclera (the whites of the eyes).
This is a crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider because it indicates a worsening of the patient's condition and the need for prompt intervention to address the obstruction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Direct identification of the causative organism: A culture for sensitive organisms is the most direct and definitive way to identify the specific bacteria or other microorganisms that are causing the infection in the wound. This information is crucial for guiding the selection of the most appropriate antibiotic therapy.
Tailored antibiotic therapy: By knowing the exact organism responsible, healthcare providers can prescribe antibiotics that are specifically effective against that organism, ensuring optimal treatment and reducing the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Informed infection control measures: The results of the culture can also inform appropriate infection control measures to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients or healthcare workers.
Monitoring treatment effectiveness: Cultures can also be used to monitor the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. If the culture results show that the bacteria are no longer present after a course of antibiotics, this indicates that the treatment has been successful.
Choice B rationale:
Non-specific marker of inflammation: C-reactive protein (CRP) is a non-specific marker of inflammation that can be elevated in various conditions, including infections, but also in non-infectious conditions such as autoimmune diseases and trauma.
Limited diagnostic value for wound infections: While an elevated CRP level may suggest the presence of an infection, it does not provide information about the specific causative organism, which is essential for guiding antibiotic therapy.
Supplementary role: CRP levels can be used in conjunction with other clinical findings and laboratory tests to assess the severity of an infection and monitor the response to treatment, but it should not be relied upon as a sole diagnostic tool for wound infections.
Choice C rationale:
Not directly indicative of wound infection: Blood pH level primarily reflects the acid-base balance of the body and is not directly indicative of a wound infection.
Alterations in other conditions: Blood pH can be altered in various conditions, including respiratory and metabolic disorders, and is not specific to wound infections.
Limited role in diagnosis: While significant alterations in blood pH may suggest a serious systemic infection, it does not provide information about the location or causative organism of the infection.
Choice D rationale:
Not directly related to wound infection: Serum blood glucose level is primarily used to monitor diabetes and is not directly related to wound infections.
Impaired wound healing in diabetes: While elevated blood glucose levels can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infections in diabetic patients, it is not a diagnostic test for wound infections in general.
Secondary consideration: Blood glucose levels may be considered as part of the overall assessment of a patient with a wound infection, particularly in those with diabetes, but it is not a primary diagnostic tool.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
While ABGs can provide valuable information about a patient's respiratory status, they are not routinely required prior to postural drainage in patients with COPD.
ABGs might be considered if the patient is experiencing acute respiratory distress or if there are concerns about their oxygenation or ventilation status.
However, in the absence of such concerns, obtaining ABGs would not be necessary and could potentially cause discomfort or anxiety for the patient.
Choice C rationale:
Performing postural drainage immediately after meals is not recommended for patients with COPD.
This is because eating can cause a feeling of fullness in the stomach, which can make it difficult for the patient to breathe deeply and effectively during the procedure.
Additionally, there is a risk of aspiration if the patient were to vomit during or after postural drainage.
It is generally recommended to perform postural drainage at least 1-2 hours after meals to reduce these risks.
Choice D rationale:
Instructing the patient to breathe shallow and fast is not appropriate for postural drainage.
The goal of postural drainage is to help the patient mobilize and expectorate secretions from the lungs.
This is best achieved by encouraging the patient to breathe deeply and slowly, which helps to open up the airways and promote mucus clearance.
Shallow, rapid breathing can actually make it more difficult to clear secretions and can lead to increased shortness of breath.
Choice B rationale:
Explaining that the patient may be placed in five positions is the most appropriate approach for postural drainage in a patient with COPD.
This is because different positions help to drain different areas of the lungs. The five positions typically used for postural drainage are:
Head down position (to drain the lower lobes)
Prone position (to drain the posterior segments of the lungs)
Right lateral position (to drain the right middle lobe and right lower lobe) Left lateral position (to drain the left lower lobe)
Sitting upright position (to drain the upper lobes)
By placing the patient in these different positions, the nurse can help to ensure that all areas of the lungs are drained effectively.
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