A patient with gout has been prescribed Allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse emphasize to the patient?
"Increase your fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day."
"Discontinue the medication once symptoms improve."
"Double the dose if a dose is missed."
"Take the medication only during acute gout attacks."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "Increase your fluid intake to 2–3 liters per day.": Increased fluid intake helps dilute uric acid levels and promotes renal excretion, reducing the risk of kidney stones—a common complication in patients taking allopurinol. Maintaining hydration is a key part of long-term gout management.
B. "Discontinue the medication once symptoms improve.": Allopurinol is a maintenance medication meant to prevent gout flares by lowering uric acid levels over time. Stopping it when symptoms improve can lead to rebound hyperuricemia and recurrent attacks.
C. "Double the dose if a dose is missed.": Doubling a missed dose can increase the risk of toxicity, including skin rash, liver dysfunction, and hypersensitivity reactions. If a dose is missed, it should be taken as soon as remembered unless it's almost time for the next dose.
D. "Take the medication only during acute gout attacks.": Allopurinol is not intended for acute gout relief; it can actually worsen or trigger flares when initiated during an attack. It is used for chronic urate-lowering therapy and should be taken consistently.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. "The IV heparin increases the effects of the warfarin and decreases the length of your hospital stay.": Heparin does not enhance the effect of warfarin directly. Their mechanisms of action are different, and warfarin’s effect is delayed. Heparin is used to maintain anticoagulation until warfarin becomes effective.
B. "Both heparin and warfarin work together to dissolve the clots.": Neither heparin nor warfarin dissolves existing clots; they prevent further clot formation and allow the body’s natural fibrinolytic system to break down clots. This statement misrepresents their action.
C. "Warfarin takes several days to work, so the IV heparin will be used until the warfarin reaches a therapeutic level.": Warfarin requires 3–5 days to reach therapeutic INR levels due to its action on vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation, which is why it is continued until warfarin is therapeutic.
D. "I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today.": Discontinuing heparin too soon places the patient at risk for clot progression or embolization, as warfarin will not yet be therapeutic. The nurse should understand and educate the patient about the rationale for overlap.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: While effective as an anticonvulsant, phenobarbital has a slower onset of action and is not the preferred first-line treatment for acute seizures. It is more commonly used in refractory cases or for long-term seizure control.
B. Intravenous Lorazepam: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine and the first-line treatment for active seizures, especially status epilepticus. Given IV, it acts quickly by enhancing GABA activity, which calms neuronal excitability and stops seizure activity efficiently.
C. Oral Phenytoin: Phenytoin is used for long-term seizure prevention but is not effective for terminating ongoing seizures due to its slow onset when taken orally. It may be used after benzodiazepines to prevent seizure recurrence but not as the initial agent.
D. Subcutaneous Sumatriptan: Sumatriptan is used for treating acute migraines and has no role in managing seizures. It acts on serotonin receptors to relieve migraine symptoms, not to control abnormal neuronal discharges.
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