A woman who is 37 weeks gestation is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. She asks the nurse why she is getting Magnesium Sulfate. What is the best response?

It provides neuroprotection to your baby

It helps to lower your blood pressure.

It decreases the risk of seizures

It will decrease your symptoms of headache and blurred vision.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Magnesium sulfate is not primarily used for neuroprotection in pre-eclampsia; it is used to prevent seizures, which are a complication of the condition.

B. While magnesium sulfate may have some mild blood pressure-lowering effects, its main role in pre-eclampsia is seizure prevention.

C. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures in women with pre-eclampsia or eclampsia, which are associated with the condition's severity.

D. While magnesium sulfate may help with symptoms like headaches and blurred vision, its primary purpose is to reduce the risk of seizures.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Ignoring the mood swings is not an appropriate response because it may be a sign of postpartum mood changes that need to be monitored.

B. Mood swings in the postpartum period are common and often due to hormonal changes. This is normal unless it persists beyond two weeks, at which point it may indicate postpartum depression.

C. Suggesting antidepressants immediately is premature; mood swings are common in the postpartum period, and treatment is not necessary unless they persist or worsen.

D. Advising the husband to leave the wife unattended is unsafe and inappropriate. Ensuring the wife has support during this time is important.

A. A pulse of 132 is high and could be a sign of tachycardia, which is a known side effect of Terbutaline, potentially making the use of this medication unsafe. B. Uterine contractions (UCs) every 10 minutes do not indicate any immediate concern or contraindication for Terbutaline. C. A category 1 FHR is reassuring and would not contraindicate the use of Terbutaline.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While assessing blood pressure is important, the first priority is to address potential uterine atony, which is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage.

B. Bladder distention could be a contributing factor, but uterine massage is the first step to manage uterine tone and control bleeding.

C. Massaging the fundus is the first action to take when the patient is saturating a pad quickly after delivery, as this helps stimulate uterine contractions to control bleeding.

D. Preparing to administer oxytocic medication may be necessary if uterine massage does not effectively control bleeding, but it should come after assessing the uterus.

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A woman who is 37 weeks gestation is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. She asks the nurse why she is getting Magnesium Sulfate. What is the best response?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A man calls the nurses’ station stating that his wife, who delivered four days ago, is happy one minute and crying the next. The man says, "She was never like this before the baby was born. What would be the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. A blood pressure of 94/60 is low but not typically a contraindication for Terbutaline administration.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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