A woman's obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, another child was born at 40 weeks of gestation, and the last child was born at 36.2 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?

Select one:

4-2-1-0-3

4-1-1-1-3

4-1-2-0-3

4-3-0-0-3

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a. In this case, the woman is pregnant for the fourth time, so her gravidity is 4.

She has one child born at 39 weeks, another child born at 40 weeks, and one child born at 36.2 weeks. The first two are considered term births, and the last one is considered a preterm birth. Therefore, her term is 1 and her preterm is 2. She has no abortions, so her abortion is 0. She has three living children, so her living children is 3. Hence, her GTPAL is 4-2-1-0-3.
b.   This indicates 1 full-term pregnancy, 1 preterm pregnancy, and 3 living child.

c.   This would indicate 1 full-term pregnancy, 2 preterm pregnancies, and 3 living children.
d.   4-3-0-0-3: This would indicate 3 full-term pregnancies and 3 living children.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

a. This would help determine the location of the placenta and whether placenta previa is present, which can cause painless vaginal bleeding.
b. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.
c. While an abdominal ultrasound can also determine the location of the placenta, a vaginal ultrasound is more accurate for this purpose.
d. This is not typically done for diagnosis of painless vaginal bleeding.

A. Continuous the Magnesium sulfate infusion. B. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion. C. Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. D. Administers oxygen. E. Administers oxygen.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. This is not the correct choice because the woman has signs of magnesium toxicity, such as low urine output, high blood pressure, and increased DTR. Continuing the infusion could worsen her condition and put her and the fetus at risk.

b. This is the correct choice because the woman needs to be treated for magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Stopping the infusion will prevent further accumulation of magnesium in her body and allow her to excrete the excess.
c. This is not the correct choice because it will delay the treatment of magnesium toxicity, which is a medical emergency. The woman's vital signs and symptoms are enough to indicate that she has a high level of magnesium and needs immediate intervention.
d. This is not the correct choice because it will not address the underlying cause of magnesium toxicity, which is the infusion. Oxygen may help with some symptoms, such as respiratory depression, but it will not reverse the effects of magnesium on the nervous system and blood vessels.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes rupture. Prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the top priority? Select one:

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