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A woman's obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, another child was born at 40 weeks of gestation, and the last child was born at 36.2 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?

Select one:

A.

4-2-1-0-3

B.

4-1-1-1-3

C.

4-1-2-0-3

D.

4-3-0-0-3

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a.    In this case, the woman is pregnant for the fourth time, so her gravidity is 4.

She has one child born at 39 weeks, another child born at 40 weeks, and one child born at 36.2 weeks. The first two are considered term births, and the last one is considered a preterm birth. Therefore, her term is 1 and her preterm is 2. She has no abortions, so her abortion is 0. She has three living children, so her living children is 3. Hence, her GTPAL is 4-2-1-0-3.
b.    This indicates 1 full-term pregnancy, 1 preterm pregnancy, and 3 living child.
 
c.    This would indicate 1 full-term pregnancy, 2 preterm pregnancies, and 3 living children.
d.    4-3-0-0-3: This would indicate 3 full-term pregnancies and 3 living children.
 


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. A woman at 37 weeks' gestation who experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes 30 minutes ago with normal fetal movements is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.
b. A woman who is 9 cm dilated and fully effaced and is requesting to go to the bathroom to have a bowel movement is in the second stage of labor, which means that the cervix is fully dilated and the fetus is descending in the birth canal. The urge to have a bowel movement is a sign that the fetal head is pressing on the rectum and that delivery is imminent. This patient needs immediate attention and preparation for delivery.
c. A woman at 27 weeks' gestation who noted scant vaginal bleeding today after having sexual intercourse in the morning may be experiencing placenta previa or placental abruption but this is not a priority compared to the woman in option b who is yet to deliver.
d. A woman who is 2 cm dilated and 80% effaced and is crying and shows mild anxiety is not a priority assessment as long as there are no signs of fetal distress.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

a. A positive CST indicates late decelerations that persist in more than 50% of the contractions, which is not the case in this scenario.
b. A negative CST indicates the absence of late decelerations, which is not the case in this scenario.
c. A satisfactory CST indicates that there are no late decelerations, and the test is considered normal.
d. Reactive is not a term used to interpret a CST.

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