An 82-year-old client was admitted to the hospital on isolation precautions 3 days ago for C diff. The client begins to demonstrate irritability, confusion, and paranoia.
Which of the following is the best reason for the assessment findings?

Mood disorder.

Sensory deprivation.

Anxiety.

Cerebral vascular accident (CVA).

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Sensory deprivation is a condition in which a person experiences a lack of sensory input or stimulation.

This can result from isolation, confinement, or loss of sensory function. Sensory deprivation can cause psychological and physiological changes, such as irritability, confusion, paranoia, hallucinations, depression, anxiety, and cognitive impairment.

Choice A is wrong because mood disorder is a general term for a group of mental health conditions that affect a person’s emotional state, such as depression, bipolar disorder, or anxiety disorder. Mood disorder is not likely to be caused by isolation precautions for C diff.

Choice C is wrong because anxiety is a feeling of nervousness, worry, or fear that interferes with daily functioning. Anxiety can be triggered by stress, trauma, or other factors, but it is not a direct consequence of isolation precautions for C diff.

Choice D is wrong because cerebral vascular accident (CVA), also known as stroke, is a sudden interruption of blood flow to the brain that causes neurological damage. CVA can cause symptoms such as weakness, numbness, slurred speech, vision loss, or confusion, but it is not related to isolation precautions for C diff.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A two-hour postprandial glucose test is done to check your blood sugar level two hours after you eat a meal.

This test helps to diagnose diabetes or monitor its treatment. A normal blood sugar level for this test is less than 140 mg/dL.

Choice A is wrong because fasting means not eating for at least eight hours before the test. This is done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.

Choice B is wrong because before breakfast means before you eat anything in the morning. This is also done for a fasting blood glucose test, not a postprandial one.

Choice D is wrong because before glucose is consumed means before you drink a sugary liquid for a glucose tolerance test. This test measures how your body handles glucose after drinking it, not after eating a meal.

A. Metoprolol. B. Hydrochlorothiazide. C. Enoxaparin. D. Atorvastatin.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse should hold and notify the prescriber because hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lower the serum potassium level. The client already has a high serum potassium level of 5.2 mmol/L, which is above the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mmol/L.

Giving hydrochlorothiazide could worsen the client’s condition and cause hypokalemia.

Choice A is wrong because metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can lower the blood pressure and heart rate.

The client’s blood pressure and heart rate are not given, so there is no reason to hold metoprolol based on the information provided.

Choice C is wrong because enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that can prevent blood clots. The client has a low platelet count of 98,000/mm, which is below the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000/mm.

However, this does not contraindicate the use of enoxaparin, unless the client has signs of bleeding or bruising.

Choice D is wrong because atorvastatin is a statin that can lower the serum cholesterol

level. The client has a high serum cholesterol level of 250 mg/dL, which is above the desirable level of less than 200 mg/dL.

Giving atorvastatin could help reduce the client’s risk of cardiovascular complications.

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An 82-year-old client was admitted to the hospital on isolation precautions 3 days ago for C diff. The client begins to demonstrate irritability, confusion, and paranoia. Which of the following is the best reason for the assessment findings?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is to have a two-hour post-prandial blood glucose drawn. Which statement should the nurse make to inform the client when the two-hour test will be performed?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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An 82-year-old client was admitted to the hospital on isolation precautions 3 days ago for C diff. The client begins to demonstrate irritability, confusion, and paranoia.
Which of the following is the best reason for the assessment findings?