The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is seeing a pregnant patient in the clinic for a routine assessment. The pregnancy is at 22 weeks gestation and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. What findings during the visit today would make the APRN concerned for preeclampsia? Select All That Apply.
Blood pressure of 165/115 mm/Hg
Elevated white blood cell count (WBC)
Decreased serum creatinine level
Protein 1+ on urine dipstick
Correct Answer : A,D
Preeclampsia is a pregnancy-specific hypertensive disorder characterized by new-onset hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. It reflects abnormal placental perfusion leading to widespread endothelial dysfunction and end-organ involvement. Early recognition is essential because it can progress to severe complications affecting the kidneys, liver, brain, and fetus. Diagnostic concern is based on blood pressure elevation and evidence of protein loss in urine.
Rationale:
A. A blood pressure of 165/115 mmHg is significantly elevated and meets the criteria for severe-range hypertension in pregnancy. Such readings suggest increased systemic vascular resistance and endothelial dysfunction, both characteristic of preeclampsia. This level of hypertension places the patient at high risk for complications such as eclampsia, stroke, and placental insufficiency.
B. Elevated white blood cell count is not a diagnostic indicator of preeclampsia and may be seen in normal pregnancy or in response to infection or stress. Preeclampsia is primarily a vascular and placental disorder rather than an infectious or hematologic condition. Therefore, WBC elevation alone does not support the diagnosis.
C. Decreased serum creatinine level is typically a normal physiological finding in pregnancy due to increased glomerular filtration rate. In preeclampsia, renal impairment would more commonly result in elevated creatinine levels rather than decreased values. Thus, this finding is not concerning for preeclampsia.
D. Protein 1+ on urine dipstick indicates proteinuria, which is a key diagnostic feature of preeclampsia. It reflects glomerular endothelial damage leading to leakage of protein into the urine. When combined with hypertension after 20 weeks gestation, this finding strongly supports the diagnosis of preeclampsia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Level of consciousness (LOC) is a key component of the neurologic assessment and reflects a patient’s awareness of self and environment, as well as their ability to respond to external stimuli. Changes in LOC can indicate underlying neurological, metabolic, or systemic conditions. Clinicians use standardized descriptors such as alert, lethargic, obtunded, and stuporous to document the degree of arousal and responsiveness. Accurate classification helps guide urgency of intervention and further diagnostic evaluation.
Rationale:
A. Alert describes a patient who is fully awake, responsive, and able to interact appropriately without the need for external stimulation. This patient requires no verbal or physical prompting to maintain wakefulness or respond to questions. In this scenario, the need for loud verbal stimulation and rapid return to sleep does not meet the criteria for alertness.
B. Obtunded refers to a more significant decrease in consciousness where the patient has difficulty maintaining alertness and responds slowly or inconsistently to stimuli. These patients typically require repeated or more vigorous stimulation and may show delayed or confused responses. The patient in this case is still able to answer appropriately and responds promptly, which is less severe than obtundation.
C. Lethargic is the most appropriate classification because the patient opens their eyes when spoken to loudly, responds appropriately, and then quickly falls back asleep. This indicates a mildly reduced level of consciousness with easy arousability but inability to maintain sustained wakefulness. It reflects decreased alertness but intact cognitive responsiveness when stimulated.
D. Stuporous describes a severely depressed level of consciousness where the patient only responds to vigorous or painful stimuli and does not interact meaningfully. Responses, if present, are minimal and inconsistent. Since this patient responds appropriately to verbal stimulation and can answer questions coherently, stupor is not consistent with the findings.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Abnormal findings on digital rectal examination (DRE) are critical in identifying disorders of the prostate, rectum, and surrounding structures. Prostate cancer typically presents with firm, irregular, and asymmetric nodules on the prostate surface due to malignant infiltration and tissue distortion. Unlike benign conditions, malignant prostate changes are often hard, fixed, and non-tender. Differentiating malignant from inflammatory or benign enlargement is essential for early diagnosis and management.
Rationale:
A. Anorectal cancer usually presents with symptoms such as rectal bleeding, pain, changes in bowel habits, or a palpable mass in the rectal canal rather than isolated prostate abnormalities. It would not typically produce an irregular nodule confined to the prostate on digital rectal examination. The normal rectal and systemic findings in this patient make anorectal cancer unlikely.
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is characterized by a smooth, symmetric, and enlarged prostate due to nonmalignant glandular and stromal proliferation. It typically causes urinary symptoms such as hesitancy, weak stream, and nocturia rather than hard, irregular nodules. The presence of an asymmetric, hard lesion is not consistent with BPH.
C. Prostatitis is an inflammatory condition of the prostate that often presents with tenderness, warmth, and systemic symptoms such as fever or urinary discomfort. On examination, the prostate is usually tender, boggy, and enlarged rather than firm and nodular. The absence of pain and systemic signs makes prostatitis less likely.
D. Prostate cancer is the most likely diagnosis because it commonly presents with a hard, irregular, asymmetric nodule on digital rectal examination. Malignant prostate tissue becomes firm due to uncontrolled cellular growth and fibrotic changes. These findings are highly suspicious for localized prostate malignancy, even in the absence of urinary or systemic symptoms.
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