An older adult male client who was successfully treated for herpes zoster with an antiviral medication reports that he is now experiencing pain on his trunk where the lesions were located. Which action should the nurse take?

Reassure the client that the infection is resolved and the pain should soon disappear.

Contact the healthcare provider about the need to resume the client's antiviral medication.

Review the medication record to determine when the last analgesic was administered.

Teach the client about the importance of completing the full course of antiviral medication.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Reassuring the client that the pain should soon disappear is incorrect. The pain reported after herpes zoster lesions have healed is consistent with postherpetic neuralgia (PHN), a common complication of shingles in older adults. This type of neuropathic pain may persist for weeks to months even after the infection resolves, so simply reassuring the client without addressing pain management is inadequate.

B. Contacting the healthcare provider to resume antiviral medication is incorrect because the active infection has already been treated successfully. Antiviral therapy is only effective during the acute phase of herpes zoster and is not indicated for postherpetic neuralgia. Resuming antivirals will not relieve neuropathic pain.

C. Reviewing the medication record to determine when the last analgesic was administered is correct. Postherpetic neuralgia requires pain management strategies, including analgesics, anticonvulsants, or topical agents. The nurse should first assess what medications have been given, their timing, and effectiveness to plan appropriate interventions for symptom relief. This step is critical to ensure safe and timely pain management.

D. Teaching the client about completing the full course of antiviral medication is inappropriate at this point. The client has already completed treatment for the active infection, so this teaching does not address the current problem of persistent neuropathic pain.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["2.4"]

Explanation

Step 1: Determine concentration
1,000 mg in 3.0 mL
Concentration = 1,000 ÷ 3 = 333.3 mg/mL

Step 2: Use the formula
Volume (mL) = Desired dose ÷ Concentration

Step 3: Insert values
Volume = 800 ÷ 333.3

Step 4: Calculate
Volume ≈ 2.4 mL

Step 5: Round to nearest tenth
2.4 → 2.4 mL

A. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this. B. The client probably has an organic brain disease and will likely have Alzheimer's disease within a few years. C. The daughter is under stress and should be encouraged to think about happier times. D. The family needs a social worker to talk to them about how to handle their father when he becomes annoying.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Personality traits that were present earlier in life, such as compulsiveness or perfectionism, can become more pronounced in older adulthood due to normal aging processes, changes in cognition, or the stress of hospitalization. In this case, the client’s preoccupation with food likely reflects his lifelong habits and professional background as a chef, rather than a new pathological condition. Recognizing this helps the nurse respond with understanding and provide strategies that respect the client’s preferences.

B. While some cognitive decline is common with aging, assuming that the client has an organic brain disease such as Alzheimer’s disease based solely on obsessive behavior is inaccurate. Obsessive tendencies related to personality do not indicate inevitable neurodegenerative disease. Making this assumption could cause unnecessary alarm and misinform the family.

C. Advising the daughter to focus on happier times does not address the underlying behavior or provide practical guidance. It minimizes the client’s current needs and could be dismissive of the family’s concerns. Effective nursing communication should validate the family’s observations while explaining possible reasons for the client’s behavior.

D. Suggesting a social worker to help the family handle the client when he becomes annoying is not appropriate. The behavior is not inherently “annoying” or pathological; it reflects personality traits. The focus should be on understanding and accommodating the client’s lifelong habits rather than labeling them as problems requiring external intervention.

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An older adult male client who was successfully treated for herpes zoster with an antiviral medication reports that he is now experiencing pain on his trunk where the lesions were located. Which action should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["2.4"]

Explanation

An older adult male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on which information?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with a history of a bilateral adrenalectomy is admitted with a weak, irregular pulse, and hypotension. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

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The nurse is providing education to a client and family on hospice. Which information should the nurse provide about hospice care?

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The nurse is caring for a client who has been admitted with recurring migraine headaches. To assess the quality of the client's pain experienced from the migraine headache, which approach should the nurse use?

The nurse is evaluating a client's outcomes. Which statement indicates a client has achieved improved health?