An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam. During the health assessment, the client reports experiencing of chest pain. Which action should the nurse take first?
Refer the client to the cardiology clinic.
Obtain the client's blood pressure.
Determine if alprazolam was taken recently.
Assess the client for substance abuse.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Referring the client to the cardiology clinic may be necessary, but obtaining the client's blood pressure is the priority to assess the immediate need for intervention and determine the appropriate course of action.
Choice B rationale: Obtaining the client's blood pressure is the most immediate and relevant action. Chest pain is a potentially serious symptom, and assessing blood pressure will help determine the urgency of the situation.
Choice C rationale: Determining if alprazolam was taken recently is important but may not be the immediate priority when the client is reporting chest pain. Assessing vital signs is crucial in this situation.
Choice D rationale: Assessing the client for substance abuse is relevant to the overall care of the client but may not be the immediate priority when chest pain is reported. The nurse should address potential medical emergencies first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Individual addiction counseling may be beneficial for the client but does not address the immediate physiological issue of Wernicke encephalopathy. Thiamine replacement is the priority.
Choice B rationale: Initiating disulfiram teaching is not relevant to the management of Wernicke encephalopathy. Disulfiram is used for alcohol aversion therapy, not thiamine deficiency.
Choice C rationale: Thiamine administration is the most critical intervention for Wernicke encephalopathy caused by alcohol addiction. Thiamine deficiency is a key factor in the development of this condition.
Choice D rationale: Nutrition referral may be important for the client's overall well being, but it is not the priority when the client is experiencing Wernicke encephalopathy. Immediate thiamine replacement is essential.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The nurse's response regarding watery eyes and diarrhea is not directly related to the client's concern about the medication's effect on blood glucose levels.
Choice B rationale: This response minimizes the potential side effects, which is not accurate. Second-generation antipsychotics are associated with metabolic side effects, including changes in blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Offering an education sheet is helpful but does not directly address the client's specific concerns about the medication's impact on blood glucose levels.
Choice D rationale: This response acknowledges the client's concern, provides information about the general tolerability of the medication, and invites the client to share more about their specific worries. It encourages open communication and allows the nurse to address the client's concerns more effectively.
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