As the nurse cares for four postpartum patients, which patient is at highest risk for hemorrhage?
A primiparous patient who delivered a 7pound 10 ounce baby 24 hours ago.
A multiparous patient who delivered a 9 pound baby 4 hours ago.
A primiparous patient who delivered a late preterm baby 24 hours ago.
A multiparous patient who delivered a 7 pound baby 6 hours ago.
The Correct Answer is B
A. A primiparous patient who delivered a 7-pound 10-ounce baby 24 hours ago is at lower risk because primiparous patients generally have a lower risk of postpartum hemorrhage, and moderate birth weight babies rarely cause excessive uterine stretching. The 24-hour postpartum period also allows for initial uterine contraction.
B. A multiparous patient who delivered a 9-pound baby 4 hours ago is correct because multiparity and macrosomia (large baby) increase the risk of uterine atony, which is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. The patient is also in the early postpartum period (first 24 hours), which is when most hemorrhages occur, making this patient the highest risk.
C. A primiparous patient who delivered a late preterm baby 24 hours ago is lower risk because smaller birth weight and primiparity reduce the risk of excessive uterine stretching and atony.
D. A multiparous patient who delivered a 7-pound baby 6 hours ago is at some risk due to multiparity, but the smaller baby size reduces the likelihood of uterine atony compared with a 9-pound infant.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Urinary tract infection is incorrect because while UTIs can cause dysuria, urgency, and sometimes hematuria, they rarely follow a strep throat infection and do not typically cause periorbital edema or tea-colored urine in otherwise healthy children.
B. Nephrotic syndrome is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and generalized edema, rather than the hematuria, mild periorbital edema, and tea-colored urine seen here.
C. Acute tubular necrosis is incorrect because ATN is usually associated with ischemic or nephrotoxic injury and presents with oliguria and elevated creatinine, not a history of recent streptococcal infection or classic tea-colored urine.
D. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN) is correct because APSGN typically occurs 1–2 weeks after a streptococcal pharyngitis or skin infection. Classic manifestations include periorbital edema, hematuria (tea- or cola-colored urine), mild proteinuria, decreased urine output, and hypertension. This child’s history of recent strep throat followed by these renal symptoms is highly indicative of APSGN.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Cataract is incorrect because although cataracts can cause a cloudy or white appearance of the lens, they are less commonly associated with leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) seen in photographs and are not typically linked with intermittent eye crossing in toddlers.
B. Retinoblastoma is correct because leukocoria (white reflection in the pupil) is the classic and most common presenting sign of this malignant eye tumor in young children. Strabismus or eye crossing often occurs because the tumor interferes with normal vision. Retinoblastoma is a medical emergency, and early detection is critical to preserve vision and life.
C. Strabismus is incorrect because while it involves misalignment of the eyes, it does not cause a white pupillary reflex. Strabismus may be a symptom of an underlying condition, such as retinoblastoma, but it is not the primary diagnosis given these findings.
D. Glaucoma is incorrect because pediatric glaucoma typically presents with tearing, photophobia, corneal cloudiness, and enlarged eyes, not leukocoria. Eye crossing is also not a primary feature of glaucoma.
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