At the end of your shift, the ICU supervisor consults with you about which of the oncoming staff members is best to assign to care for a 54-year-old female with septic shock with the following vital signs: BP 86/40, HR 112, O2 saturation 93%, RR 32, and T 103 F. She is currently on a Dopamine drip and is being mechanically ventilated. Which RN is the most appropriate to assign to care for this patient?
Travel RN with 20 years of ICU experience who has been working in this ICU for 4 months
Newly graduated RN who worked in the ICU as a nursing assistant and has finished her orientation
Experienced ICU RN who has been called in on a day off of work to cover the first 4 hours of the shift
RN who has been floated from the post anesthesia care unit (PACU) to the ICU for the shift
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. The travel RN with 20 years of ICU experience who has been working in this ICU for 4 months is correct because this patient is critically ill with septic shock, requires continuous titration of a vasopressor, and is mechanically ventilated. Assigning an RN who is highly experienced in ICU care and familiar with the unit’s protocols and equipment ensures safe, competent management of complex interventions.
B. The newly graduated RN is incorrect because, despite completing orientation, she does not yet have the full critical thinking skills or experience needed to manage a patient with septic shock on a vasopressor and mechanical ventilation.
C. The experienced ICU RN called in on a day off is incorrect because fatigue and being called in unexpectedly may reduce alertness and effectiveness, which could compromise patient safety during a critical period.
D. The RN floated from PACU is incorrect because although PACU experience involves monitoring post-anesthesia patients, float nurses may not have the ICU-specific knowledge for managing septic shock, titrating vasopressors, or ventilator management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Applying antibiotic ointment to mucous membranes is not a standard or effective intervention for preventing systemic infection or septic shock. Prophylactic topical antibiotics do not reduce the risk of urosepsis and may contribute to antimicrobial resistance.
B. Passive range-of-motion exercises promote mobility and circulation but do not directly reduce the risk of infection progression or septic shock. They are supportive measures rather than infection-prevention strategies.
C. Initiating total parenteral nutrition may be necessary in some clients who cannot meet nutritional needs enterally, but it does not directly reduce the risk of septic shock. In fact, TPN itself can increase infection risk if central venous access is required.
D. Invasive devices, such as urinary catheters and central lines, are common sources of infection. Removing them as soon as they are no longer needed significantly reduces the risk of healthcare-associated infections and progression to sepsis or septic shock, making this the most effective preventive action.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. 3.3 mL would deliver approximately 742 mg, which is far above the prescribed dose.
B. 1.1 mL provides approximately 250 mg, matching the provider’s order.
First, identify the ordered dose and the available concentration.
Ordered dose = 250 mg
Available concentration = 225 mg per 1 mL
Use the medication calculation formula:
Amount to administer (mL) = Ordered dose ÷ Concentration
250 mg ÷ 225 mg/mL = 1.11 mL, which rounds to 1.1 mL
C. 2.5 mL refers to the reconstitution volume, not the amount to administer.
D. 1 mL would deliver only 225 mg, which is less than the prescribed dos
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