Because a full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting normally, nurses intervene to help the woman empty her bladder spontaneously as soon as possible.
If all else fails, the last thing the nurse could try is:
Pouring water from a squeeze bottle over the woman’s perineum.
Placing oil of peppermint in a bedpan under the woman.
Asking the physician to prescribe analgesics.
Inserting a sterile catheter.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because oil peppermint can stimulate the micturition reflex and help the woman to void.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
Choice A is wrong because pouring water over the perineum may not be enough to trigger the micturition reflex and may cause discomfort or infection.
Choice C is wrong because analgesics may not address the underlying cause of urinary retention and may have side effects such as drowsiness or nausea.
Choice D is wrong because inserting a sterile catheter is an invasive procedure that carries risks such as trauma, infection, or bladder spasms. It should be used only as a last resort after other methods have failed.
Normal ranges for postpartum bladder function are:
- Urine output: 3000 to 5000 mL/day for the first 2 to 3 days after delivery.
- Urine specific gravity: 1.005 to 1.030.
- Urine pH: 4.6 to 8.0.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as respiratory depression, hyporeflexia, and flushing.
Magnesium sulfate is a high-alert medication that can cause serious adverse effects if not monitored closely.
The nurse should stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.
Choice A is wrong because calling for a stat magnesium sulfate level will not address the immediate problem of toxicity.
The nurse should act quickly to prevent further complications.
Choice B is wrong because administering oxygen will not reverse the effects of magnesium toxicity.
Oxygen may be helpful for respiratory distress, but it will not correct the underlying cause.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that lowers blood pressure.
The patient’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia (140-160/90-110 mm Hg).
Hydralazine may cause hypotension and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The child should receive his regular dose of insulin even if he does not have an appetite. If the child is not eating as usual, he needs calories to prevent hypoglycemia. During periods of minor illness, the child with type 1 diabetes mellitus can be managed safely at home.
Choice A is wrong because giving the child half his regular morning dose of insulin can lead to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis.
Choice C is wrong because giving the child plenty of unsweetened, clear liquids to prevent dehydration can also cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D is wrong because taking the child directly to the emergency department is not necessary unless the child has signs of severe dehydration, vomiting, abdominal
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