The nurse is performing an assessment on a child and notes the presence of Koplik’s spots. In which communicable disease are Koplik’s spots present?
Rubella
Measles (rubeola)
Chickenpox (varicella)
Exanthema subitum (roseola)
The Correct Answer is B
Measles (rubeola) is a communicable disease that is characterized by Koplik’s spots, which are clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa opposite the lower molars. They appear two to three days before the measles rash and are pathognomonic for measles.
Choice A is wrong because rubella is a different viral infection that causes a mild rash and fever, but does not have Koplik’s spots.
Choice C is wrong because chickenpox (varicella) is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and produces fluid-filled blisters on the skin, not white spots in the mouth.
Choice D is wrong because exanthema subitum (roseola) is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 or 7 and causes a high fever followed by a pink rash on the trunk and neck, but no oral lesions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The patient is showing signs of magnesium toxicity, such as respiratory depression, hyporeflexia, and flushing.
Magnesium sulfate is a high-alert medication that can cause serious adverse effects if not monitored closely.
The nurse should stop the infusion immediately and notify the provider.
Choice A is wrong because calling for a stat magnesium sulfate level will not address the immediate problem of toxicity.
The nurse should act quickly to prevent further complications.
Choice B is wrong because administering oxygen will not reverse the effects of magnesium toxicity.
Oxygen may be helpful for respiratory distress, but it will not correct the underlying cause.
Choice D is wrong because hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that lowers blood pressure.
The patient’s blood pressure is already within the normal range for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia (140-160/90-110 mm Hg).
Hydralazine may cause hypotension and fetal distress.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
The child’s care should include adequate hydration and pain management. The management of an acute event of a vaso-occlusive crisis is the use of potent analgesics (opioids), rehydration with normal saline or Ringer’s lactate, treatment of malaria (whether symptomatic or not) using artemisinin combination therapy, and the use of oxygen via face mask, especially for acute chest syndrome.
Choice A is wrong because correction of acidosis is not a specific intervention for the vaso- occlusive crisis.
Acidosis may occur as a complication of sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of the crisis.
Choice D is wrong because the administration of heparin is not recommended for the vaso-occlusive crisis.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that may increase the risk of bleeding and does not prevent or treat the sickling process.
Normal ranges for hemoglobin are 11.5 to 15.5 g/dl for children after 2 years of age.
Normal ranges for reticulocyte count are 0.5% to 1.5% for adults and 0.5% to 2.5% for children.
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