A school-age child is admitted in vaso-occlusive sickle cell crisis.
The child’s care should include which intervention? (Select all that apply.)
Correction of acidosis
Adequate hydration.
Pain management.
Administration of heparin.
Correct Answer : B,C
The child’s care should include adequate hydration and pain management. The management of an acute event of a vaso-occlusive crisis is the use of potent analgesics (opioids), rehydration with normal saline or Ringer’s lactate, treatment of malaria (whether symptomatic or not) using artemisinin combination therapy, and the use of oxygen via face mask, especially for acute chest syndrome.
Choice A is wrong because correction of acidosis is not a specific intervention for the vaso- occlusive crisis.
Acidosis may occur as a complication of sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of the crisis.
Choice D is wrong because the administration of heparin is not recommended for the vaso-occlusive crisis.
Heparin is an anticoagulant that may increase the risk of bleeding and does not prevent or treat the sickling process.
Normal ranges for hemoglobin are 11.5 to 15.5 g/dl for children after 2 years of age.
Normal ranges for reticulocyte count are 0.5% to 1.5% for adults and 0.5% to 2.5% for children.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
If a child has acute epiglottitis, examination of the throat may cause complete obstruction and should be performed only when immediate intubation can take place.
This is because the inflamed epiglottis can block the airway and cause respiratory distress or failure.
Choice A is wrong because inspiratory stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction that is aggravated when a child with epiglottitis is supine.
It is not caused by examining the throat with a tongue depressor.
Choice C is wrong because sore throat and pain on swallowing are early signs of epiglottitis, not precipitated by examining the throat with a tongue depressor.
Choice D is wrong because respiratory tract infection is the cause of epiglottitis, not a symptom or condition that is precipitated by examining the throat with a tongue depressor.
Epiglottitis is caused by H. influenzae in the respiratory tract.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to prevent and treat convulsions.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that reduces seizure risks in women with preeclampsia. A healthcare provider will give the medication intravenously. Sometimes, it’s also used to prolong pregnancy for up to two days. This allows drugs that speed up your baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not improve patellar reflexes or increase respiratory efficiency. In fact, it may cause decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes and respiratory depression as side effects.
Choice B is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not shorten the duration of labor. It may actually prolong labor by inhibiting uterine contractions.
Choice D is wrong because magnesium sulfate does not prevent a boggy uterus or lessen the lochial flow. It has no effect on uterine tone or bleeding after delivery.
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