During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

Both breasts have many nodules in the upper outer quadrants.

The client states she has bilateral breast tenderness with palpation.

The left breast is slightly larger than the right breast.

An irregularly shaped, nontender lump is palpable in the right breast.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Having many nodules in the upper outer quadrants of the breasts is a common and expected finding in breast tissue and is not necessarily a cause for concern.

Choice B rationale:

Bilateral breast tenderness with palpation can be a normal finding, especially in young women with hormonal changes. It is not of immediate concern unless it is accompanied by other worrisome symptoms.

Choice C rationale:

Slight differences in breast size are often normal and not necessarily concerning, especially in young women whose breast development may not have fully stabilized.

Choice D rationale:

An irregularly shaped, nontender lump palpable in the breast raises concerns for a potential breast mass or tumor. This finding requires further evaluation and investigation by a healthcare provider to determine its nature and possible malignancy. Early detection of breast abnormalities is crucial for timely management and improved outcomes.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Gravida refers to the number of times a woman has been pregnant, and Para indicates the number of pregnancies that have reached viability (at least 20 weeks) Since the client has

been pregnant for the fourth time and delivered two full-term newborns (reached viability), she is gravida 4, and since she had one spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) at 10 weeks of gestation, she is para 2 (two pregnancies reached viability)

Choice B rationale:

This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had three pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.

Choice C rationale:

This is the correct choice, as explained above. Choice D rationale:

This choice would be incorrect because it indicates that the client has had four pregnancies reaching viability, but she has only had two full-term newborns and one miscarriage.

A. "There is an increased risk of introducing infection.” B. "This could initiate preterm labor.” C. "This could result in profound bleeding.” D. "There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.”

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

While there is a risk of infection with any internal examination, it is not the primary reason for avoiding internal examinations in a client with placenta previa. The main concern is avoiding trauma to the placenta, which could result in significant bleeding.

Choice B rationale:

Although internal examinations may potentially stimulate uterine contractions, leading to preterm labor in some cases, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

Choice C rationale:

The correct explanation for the nurse to provide is that an internal examination could result in profound bleeding. Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, and any manipulation of the cervix or uterus through an internal examination could disrupt the placenta and cause severe bleeding, endangering both the mother and the baby.

Choice D rationale:

While there is a risk of rupturing the membranes during an internal examination, this is not the primary reason for avoiding such examinations in clients with placenta previa. The primary concern remains the risk of bleeding due to placental disruption.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

During a breast examination on a 24-year-old client, the nurse notes the following findings. Which finding is of most concern and should be reported to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant for the fourth time. The client delivered two full- term newborns and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks of gestation. The nurse should document the client's obstetrical history as which of the following?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has placenta previa. The client asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The nurse notes recurrent variable decelerations of the FHR. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?

A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 4 hr ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

A nurse is reviewing a client's medical record and notes that the client is taking tamoxifen. The nurse should identify that tamoxifen is used to treat which of the following conditions?

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

A nurse is caring for a postmenopausal client prescribed the aromatase inhibitor, anastrozole, for the treatment of breast cancer. Which of the following should the nurse tell the client she may experience?

A nurse is admitting a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?