A nurse is providing teaching to a group of women about risk factors for ovarian cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Nulliparity.
History of breastfeeding.
Previous use of oral contraceptives.
History of breast cancer.
Hormone replacement therapy.
Correct Answer : A,E
Choice A rationale:
Nulliparity (never having given birth) is a known risk factor for ovarian cancer. Women who have never had children have a higher risk compared to those who have. This is believed to be associated with the number of ovulatory cycles a woman experiences throughout her lifetime.
Choice B rationale:
History of breastfeeding does not have a direct link to ovarian cancer risk. In fact, breastfeeding is associated with a reduced risk of both breast and ovarian cancer due to hormonal changes that occur during lactation.
Choice C rationale:
Previous use of oral contraceptives is associated with a decreased risk of ovarian cancer. Women who have used birth control pills have a lower risk compared to those who have never used them. The protective effect is believed to be due to the suppression of ovulation.
Choice D rationale:
History of breast cancer is not a risk factor for ovarian cancer. Although both cancers are related to the reproductive system, they have distinct risk factors and characteristics.
Choice E rationale:
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a potential risk factor for ovarian cancer, especially long-term use. The hormones used in HRT can affect hormone levels and may increase the risk of ovarian cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
The correct answers are C, D, E.
Choice A reason:
Performing a vaginal exam is contraindicated in placenta previa because it can disrupt the placenta and cause significant bleeding.
Choice B reason:
Monitoring fetal heart rate with an internal fetal monitor is not recommended as it involves a vaginal exam, which poses a risk of bleeding in placenta previa cases.
Choice C reason:
Frequently assessing maternal heart rate is important to detect any changes that could indicate maternal hemorrhage or other complications.
Choice D reason:
Initiating bed rest with bathroom privileges is advised to minimize the risk of bleeding and to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus.
Choice E reason:
Having oxygen equipment available is essential to manage potential fetal distress, which can occur with placenta previa.
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