During the initial prenatal visit, the nurse completes a history for a 25-year-old G1PO client.
During the interview, the client states her mother has been diagnosed with Huntington’s Disease.
Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse about this autosomal dominant disorder?
“Huntington’s disease is diagnosed in childhood.”
“If you are a carrier, there is a 25% chance your child will inherit the gene.”
“Only one copy of the variant gene is needed for expression of the disease.”
“You only need to be referred to a genetic counselor if you are a carrier.”
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is C. Only one copy of the variant gene is needed for expression of the disease.
Choice A rationale:
Huntington's disease (HD) is not typically diagnosed in childhood. While symptoms can sometimes manifest in adolescence or early adulthood, the average age of onset is between 30 and 50 years old.
Early-onset HD, which occurs before the age of 20, is much rarer and accounts for only about 5-10% of cases.
It's crucial to convey accurate information about the typical age of onset to avoid unnecessary anxiety and unwarranted testing in children.
Choice B rationale:
The statement "If you are a carrier, there is a 25% chance your child will inherit the gene" is not entirely accurate for autosomal dominant disorders like HD.
If a parent has HD, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutated gene, not 25%. This is because the parent with HD has one mutated copy of the gene and one normal copy.
During conception, each child randomly receives one copy of the gene from each parent. Therefore, there's a 50% chance the child will receive the mutated copy and a 50% chance they'll receive the normal copy.
Choice D rationale:
Referral to a genetic counselor is essential for all individuals with a family history of HD, regardless of their carrier status.
Genetic counselors can provide comprehensive information about HD, including: Inheritance patterns
Risk assessment
Testing options
Reproductive options
Support resources
Psychosocial counseling
They can assist individuals in making informed decisions about testing, family planning, and management of the condition.
Choice C is the correct answer because:
HD is indeed an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease.
This contrasts with autosomal recessive disorders, which require two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) for the disease to manifest.
Understanding the pattern of inheritance is crucial for accurate risk assessment and genetic counseling.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Attaching the IV line to the distal port is not a safe practice for oxytocin administration. This is because oxytocin is a high-alert medication that can have serious adverse effects if administered incorrectly. Attaching the IV line to the distal port increases the risk of the medication being infused too quickly, which can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, fetal distress, or even uterine rupture. The safest practice is to attach the IV line to the proximal port, which is closer to the patient's body and allows for slower infusion rates.
Choice B rationale:
Customizing the concentration of oxytocin is not a recommended practice. Oxytocin is available in a premixed solution of 10 units/mL, and this concentration should not be altered. Altering the concentration can lead to dosing errors and increase the risk of adverse effects.
Choice D rationale:
Titrating oxytocin to gravity is not a safe practice. Oxytocin should be administered using an infusion pump that can accurately control the infusion rate. Infusion pumps are necessary to ensure that the medication is administered at the correct dose and rate. Gravity-based infusions are less accurate and can lead to over- or under-infusion of the medication.
Choice C rationale:
Two RN verification is a safe practice for oxytocin administration. This practice involves having two registered nurses independently verify the medication, dose, and infusion rate before administration. This helps to prevent errors and ensure that the medication is administered safely.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and body, reversing the effects of opioids. This includes respiratory depression, which is a major concern in neonates exposed to opioids during labor.
Nalbuphine is an opioid agonist-antagonist. This means that it has both agonist and antagonist effects at opioid receptors. At low doses, it acts primarily as an agonist, providing pain relief. However, at higher doses, it can also act as an antagonist, blocking the effects of other opioids.
Naloxone can effectively reverse the respiratory depression caused by nalbuphine in neonates. It is a safe and effective medication that is commonly used for this purpose.
Naloxone should be readily available whenever opioids are administered to a laboring woman. This is to ensure that it can be administered promptly if the neonate experiences respiratory depression.
Choice B rationale:
Ephedrine is a sympathomimetic drug. It works by stimulating the sympathetic nervous system. This can cause a number of effects, including increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate.
Ephedrine is not effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by opioids. It may even worsen the situation by increasing the neonate's oxygen demand.
Ephedrine is not a safe or effective medication for use in neonates. It can cause serious side effects, such as tachycardia, hypertension, and arrhythmias.
Choice C rationale:
Promethazine is a phenothiazine antiemetic. It is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting.
Promethazine does not have any effects on opioid receptors. It is not effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by opioids.
Promethazine can cause sedation and respiratory depression in neonates. It should be used with caution in this population.
Choice D rationale:
Fentanyl is a potent opioid analgesic. It is similar to nalbuphine in that it is an opioid agonist.
Fentanyl would not be effective in reversing the respiratory depression caused by nalbuphine. In fact, it would likely worsen the situation by further depressing the neonate's respiratory system.
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