For each potential prescription from the provider, specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Administer azithromycin 1 g PO one time.

Administer ibuprofen 600 mg PO twice a day for pain.

Notify all sexual partners within prior 30 days of the need for STI screening.

Administer ceftriaxone 250 mg IM now.

Repeat STI screening at next prenatal visit in 1 month.

Notify the appropriate public health agency.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"C"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"A"},"F":{"answers":"A"}}

Choice A Rationale

Administer azithromycin 1 g PO one time: Anticipated. Azithromycin is commonly used to treat chlamydia infections during pregnancy and is considered safe.

Choice B Rationale

Administer ibuprofen 600 mg PO twice a day for pain: Contraindicated. Ibuprofen is generally avoided during pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, due to risks such as premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus.

Choice C Rationale

Notify all sexual partners within prior 30 days of the need for STI screening: Anticipated. Notification of sexual partners for STI screening is a standard public health practice to prevent the spread of infections.

Choice D Rationale

Administer ceftriaxone 250 mg IM now: Anticipated. Ceftriaxone is often used to treat gonorrhea infections during pregnancy and is considered safe for both mother and fetus.

Choice E Rationale

Repeat STI screening at next prenatal visit in 1 month: Anticipated. Repeating STI screening can help ensure that any new or untreated infections are identified and managed appropriately.

Choice F Rationale

Notify the appropriate public health agency: Anticipated. Reporting certain STIs to public health agencies is required by law to help track and control the spread of infections.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A rubella titer of 1: indicates the presence of antibodies against the rubella virus, but this does not confirm the absence of a current infection. The titer represents past exposure or vaccination rather than an active infection.

Choice B rationale

A rubella titer of 1: suggests immunity to the rubella virus, making vaccination unnecessary at this time. Vaccination is typically recommended for those without immunity to prevent future infection.

Choice C rationale

A titer of 1: indicates the presence of antibodies sufficient to confer immunity to the rubella virus. This level is generally considered protective, implying the client has either had the infection before or has been vaccinated.

Choice D rationale

A mild rubella infection would not typically be determined solely by the titer level. Clinical symptoms and further diagnostic tests are required to diagnose an active rubella infection accurately.

A. 28-year-old with history of rheumatic heart disease. B. 40-year-old with a history of preterm labor. C. 18-year-old with exposure to HIV. D. 35-year-old with a child with spina bifida.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

While a history of rheumatic heart disease is significant, it does not directly correlate with the need for priority teaching on Quad screening. This condition requires careful cardiac monitoring and management during pregnancy.

Choice B rationale

A history of preterm labor is important and may require additional monitoring and interventions, but it is not a direct indication for priority teaching on Quad screening, which assesses risk for certain fetal conditions.

Choice C rationale

Exposure to HIV requires careful management and monitoring to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission. However, it is not specifically linked to the need for Quad screening, which is focused on detecting chromosomal abnormalities.

Choice D rationale

A history of having a child with spina bifida places this client at higher risk for having another child with neural tube defects or chromosomal abnormalities. Therefore, priority teaching on Quad screening, which includes markers for such conditions, is essential. .

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For each potential prescription from the provider, specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for an antepartum client whose laboratory findings indicate a rubella titer of 1:15. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this data?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Each of the following pregnant women is scheduled for a 14-week antepartal visit.In planning care, the nurse would give priority teaching on Quad screening to which client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

At her first prenatal visit, a woman and the nurse are discussing fetal development.The client asks, "When will we be able to hear the baby's heartbeat?" The nurse should reply, The fetal heartbeat can be heard with a Doppler at:

The nurse instructs a pregnant client that the purpose of an amniocentesis at 36 weeks gestation is for:

During the initial visit with the nurse at the fertility clinic, the patient asks what effect cigarette smoking or heavy alcohol intake has on the ability to conceive.What is the nurse's best response?

A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a pregnant client who reports regular use of alcohol. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication the client may be at risk for polysubstance use disorder? (Select All that Apply)

A nurse caring for a client in the prenatal clinic states that the patient is clearly pregnant because both the mother and examiner are able to feel the baby move.Which of the following signs of pregnancy is occurring?

A nurse is caring for a client during an initial prenatal visit.The client's last menstrual period was 18 weeks ago.Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?