A nurse is caring for a client who is in premature labor and is receiving terbutaline. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects that should be reported to the provider?
Dyspnea
Headaches
Nervousness
Tremors
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason:
Dyspnea: Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a serious adverse effect that should be reported immediately. Terbutaline can cause pulmonary edema, a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to severe breathing difficulties. This side effect is critical and requires prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.

Choice B reason:
Headaches: While headaches are a common side effect of terbutaline, they are generally not considered severe enough to require immediate reporting unless they are persistent or unusually intense. Headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relief and do not typically indicate a serious problem.
Choice C reason:
Nervousness: Nervousness is another common side effect of terbutaline. It is usually mild and does not require immediate medical intervention. However, if the nervousness is severe or accompanied by other symptoms, it should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
Choice D reason:
Tremors: Tremors are a known side effect of terbutaline and are usually not severe. They occur due to the medication’s action on the nervous system. While they can be bothersome, they are not typically dangerous and do not require urgent reporting unless they are severe or persistent.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is consistent with preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, indicating kidney involvement and damage. High levels of protein in the urine are a common finding in patients with preeclampsia.
Choice B Reason:
Deep tendon reflexes of 1+ are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia often causes hyperreflexia, which means increased reflex responses. Typically, patients with preeclampsia exhibit brisk reflexes (3+ or 4+), which can be a sign of central nervous system irritability and an increased risk of seizures.

Choice C Reason:
A blood pressure reading of 148/98 mm Hg is consistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, defined as systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or higher, or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or higher, measured on two occasions at least four hours apart.
Choice D Reason:
1+ pitting sacral edema is consistent with preeclampsia. Edema, particularly in the lower extremities and sacral area, is a common symptom of preeclampsia due to increased capillary permeability and fluid retention.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Encouraging the mother to supplement breast-feeding with formula is not the best intervention to prevent jaundice. Frequent breastfeeding helps to increase the infant’s fluid intake and promotes the excretion of bilirubin through stools. Supplementing with formula may interfere with the establishment of breastfeeding and is not necessary unless the infant is not feeding well.
Choice B Reason:
Keeping the infant NPO (nothing by mouth) until the second period of reactivity is not recommended. Early and frequent breastfeeding is crucial in preventing jaundice as it helps to establish milk supply and promotes the passage of meconium, which contains bilirubin.
Choice C Reason:
Encouraging the mother to breastfeed the infant every 2 to 3 hours is the best intervention to prevent jaundice. Frequent breastfeeding ensures that the infant receives adequate nutrition and hydration, which helps to lower bilirubin levels by promoting regular bowel movements.

Choice D Reason:
Placing the infant under phototherapy is a treatment for jaundice, not a preventive measure. Phototherapy is used when bilirubin levels are already elevated. The goal is to prevent jaundice from developing in the first place through frequent breastfeeding.
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