The charge nurse is making assignments for one practical nurse (PN) and three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. Which client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3°C) to 102° F (38.9° C).
Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mm Hg to 70/40 mm Hg.
Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7.
Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mm Hg to 170/60 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct- Viral meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges (the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord) caused by a viral infection. While it can be serious, it is generally less severe than bacterial meningitis. Monitoring the client's temperature is an important aspect of care, as changes in temperature can indicate the progression of the illness or the effectiveness of interventions. A temperature increase from 101°F to 102°F is a subtle change but may still require close monitoring and symptom management. The practical nurse (PN) is capable of monitoring vital signs, including temperature, and reporting any changes to the registered nurse (RN) or healthcare provider. It is within the PN's scope of practice to assess and report changes in vital signs and general condition. The other scenarios involve more complex clinical situations that may require the expertise of registered nurses.
B) Incorrect- Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism and is considered a medical emergency. Managing and assessing a client with myxedema coma requires advanced assessment, critical thinking, and interventions that are typically within the scope of registered nurses.
C) Incorrect- Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a complex condition that requires frequent monitoring of blood glucose levels, electrolytes, vital signs, and assessment of the level of consciousness. The change in the Glasgow Coma Scale score indicates a neurological deterioration that requires immediate attention and intervention, making it suitable for a registered nurse.
D) Incorrect- A subdural hematoma is a serious neurological condition that requires close monitoring of vital signs and neurological status. The change in blood pressure indicates a potential change in intracranial pressure and should be managed by registered nurses with expertise in neurological care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A) Correct- The client's statement suggests a misconception about the progression from acute stress disorder (ASD) to post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). While ASD is an initial response to trauma, it doesn't necessarily indicate a high risk for developing PTSD. The nurse should provide education about the differences and the various factors that influence the development of PTSD.
B) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's proactive approach to using holistic approaches like meditation to manage symptoms. Meditation and other relaxation techniques can be beneficial for managing stress and anxiety related to the traumatic event.
C) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's motivation to learn how to manage their thoughts better through therapy. Therapy can be highly effective for addressing trauma-related distress and helping clients develop coping strategies.
D) Incorrect- This statement reflects the client's recognition that their response is shared by many people in similar situations. Validating the client's experience and normalizing their feelings can be therapeutic.
E) Correct- This statement reflects a common misconception and stigma associated with mental health diagnoses. The nurse should reassure the client that a diagnosis of acute stress disorderdoes not equate to being "crazy" and provide information about the nature of the disorder and available treatments.
F) Correct- The statement implies a potential pessimistic outlook on treatment. While medication might be part of the treatment plan, it's important to emphasize that treatment approaches are individualized. Encouraging an open dialogue about various treatment options, including therapy and coping strategies, is essential.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- A blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a generally acceptable range for a person with diabetes and coronary artery disease. It may not directly indicate a complication related to the episodes of confusion. While blood pressure management is important for clients with diabetes and coronary artery disease, this particular blood pressure reading is not necessarily a significant finding in relation to the client's confusion.
B) Correct- Cervical spine stiffness or neck stiffness is a potential neurological symptom that can indicate a serious complication in a client with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease. The stiffness of the neck may be a sign of meningeal irritation, which can result from various conditions including infections such as meningitis. The client's medical history includes both type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease, which are risk factors for cardiovascular events, including cerebrovascular accidents (strokes). Confusion can be a symptom of a stroke, and neck stiffness can be indicative of meningeal irritation secondary to a stroke or another neurological condition.
C) Incorrect- Dark yellow urine can be a sign of dehydration, which can be a concern for someone with diabetes. However, it is not directly related to episodes of confusion. Dehydration can cause various symptoms, but confusion is not typically associated with mild dehydration.
D) Incorrect- Excessive perspiration (diaphoresis) can occur for various reasons, including increased sympathetic nervous system activity, fever, anxiety, and physical activity. While it can be a symptom of certain complications, such as hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) or heart attack, it alone may not directly relate to the episodes of confusion in this client.
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