The client presents reporting irregular menstrual cycles, bleeding between periods, mood swings, hot flashes and vaginal tenderness. After an examination, the nurse suspects abnormal uterine bleeding. Which approach would be inappropriate?
Tell the client she will need to learn to live with the problems.
Prepare her for an ultrasound to check internal pelvic structures.
Obtain a prescription for CBC and PT blood test
Obtain a prescription for pregnancy test to rule out ectopic pregnancy.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Tell the client she will need to learn to live with the problems: This approach dismisses the client’s symptoms and delays diagnosis. Abnormal uterine bleeding can result from hormonal imbalance, uterine fibroids, or malignancy, and requires diagnostic evaluation and treatment.
B. Prepare her for an ultrasound to check internal pelvic structures: A pelvic ultrasound is an appropriate diagnostic tool to identify possible causes such as uterine fibroids, endometrial abnormalities, or ovarian cysts. It provides valuable information about the internal reproductive organs.
C. Obtain a prescription for CBC and PT blood test: Laboratory tests like a complete blood count (CBC) and prothrombin time (PT) help assess anemia from blood loss and detect possible coagulation disorders that may contribute to abnormal bleeding.
D. Obtain a prescription for pregnancy test to rule out ectopic pregnancy: A pregnancy test is appropriate because irregular bleeding may be an early sign of ectopic pregnancy. Ruling out pregnancy is a necessary first step in evaluating any woman of childbearing age presenting with abnormal bleeding.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Tetracycline: Tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for gonorrhea, though it may be used as part of dual therapy if chlamydial coinfection is suspected. Gonorrhea has developed widespread resistance to tetracyclines, limiting their effectiveness.
B. Ceftriaxone: Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin, is the recommended treatment for gonorrhea due to its high efficacy against Neisseria gonorrhoeae and resistance to β-lactamase enzymes. It is typically administered as a single intramuscular dose, often with doxycycline if chlamydia has not been ruled out.
C. Penicillin: Penicillin was once the standard therapy for gonorrhea, but resistance has rendered it largely ineffective. N. gonorrhoeae strains commonly produce penicillinase, an enzyme that breaks down penicillin, making it unsuitable for treatment.
D. Levofloxacin: Fluoroquinolones like levofloxacin were previously used, but resistance to this class has also become widespread. As a result, they are no longer recommended for treating gonorrhea in most regions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Increased urinary output: Polyuria is not a characteristic sign of lead poisoning. Lead primarily affects the hematologic, neurologic, and gastrointestinal systems rather than directly influencing renal water regulation, unless nephropathy develops in chronic exposure.
B. Anorexia: Loss of appetite is a common manifestation of acute lead poisoning due to the toxic effects of lead on the gastrointestinal tract and central nervous system. The child may also experience abdominal pain, irritability, and constipation in addition to decreased appetite.
C. Jaundice: Jaundice is not typically associated with lead poisoning. Although lead interferes with heme synthesis, it does not usually cause bilirubin accumulation or liver dysfunction that would result in jaundice.
D. Diarrhea: Gastrointestinal upset can occur, but diarrhea is not as common as constipation in lead toxicity. Lead decreases peristalsis and causes smooth muscle spasm in the intestines, leading more often to constipation than to diarrhea.
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