The function of angiotensin II is to
decrease the production of aldosterone
decrease water absorption
decrease arterial blood pressure
constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure
increase the production of ADH
The Correct Answer is D
A. decrease the production of aldosterone: Angiotensin 2 serves as the primary secretagogue for the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. It directly stimulates the synthesis and release of aldosterone to enhance sodium retention. Increasing aldosterone is a vital step in the homeostatic response to low blood pressure.
B. decrease water absorption: This effector molecule promotes water retention by stimulating thirst centers in the hypothalamus and increasing the release of antidiuretic hormone. It also enhances sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule, which creates an osmotic gradient for water. These actions collectively increase total body water volume.
C. decrease arterial blood pressure: Angiotensin 2 is one of the most potent endogenous vasoconstrictors known in human physiology. Its primary systemic effect is to increase peripheral resistance and venous return to elevate blood pressure. Decreasing pressure would contradict the corrective goals of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
D. constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure: By binding to AT1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle, angiotensin 2 induces rapid systemic vasoconstriction. This increases systemic vascular resistance and immediately raises arterial blood pressure to maintain organ perfusion. It specifically targets the efferent arterioles to maintain glomerular filtration during hypotension.
E. increase the production of ADH: While angiotensin 2 does stimulate the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone, choice D is the most direct and comprehensive description of its primary cardiovascular function. ADH works synergistically with angiotensin 2 to restore blood volume and pressure. Both are essential for long-term hemodynamic stability.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom: Chromosomes do not arrange themselves in numerical order during any phase of meiosis. The spatial arrangement of the 23 pairs is random and does not follow a specific linear hierarchy. This description suggests a level of organization that does not exist within the spindle apparatus.
B. Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side: If all maternal chromosomes stayed together, genetic variation would be significantly limited. Homologs do not segregate as entire parental sets; instead, each pair behaves as an independent unit. This choice describes a scenario that would violate the principle of independent assortment.
C. Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells: The orientation of each tetrad relative to the poles is purely a matter of chance. This independent assortment allows for over 8 million possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in the resulting gametes. This randomness ensures that siblings from the same parents are genetically distinct.
D. The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator: This description is more characteristic of metaphase 2 or mitosis, where individual chromosomes align. In metaphase 1, it is the tetrads or homologous pairs that align together. The distinction between pairs and individual chromatids is the key difference between the two meiotic stages.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced from the parent cell, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell: Meiosis in males results in four functional, equal-sized haploid spermatids. In females, unequal cytoplasmic division produces one large, nutrient-rich secondary oocyte and three non-functional polar bodies. This conservation of cytoplasm in oogenesis ensures the zygote has sufficient resources for early development.
B. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced: Polar bodies are exclusive to oogenesis and represent the discarded nuclear material from asymmetrical meiotic divisions. Spermatogenesis involves symmetrical divisions that result only in functional gametes. No polar bodies are ever formed during the production of spermatozoa in the male seminiferous tubules.
C. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only: Both gametogenic pathways rely on an initial mitotic phase to maintain the stem cell population, followed by meiosis for genetic reduction. Spermatogonia and oogonia both undergo mitosis before entering the meiotic cycle. The fundamental phases of nuclear division are conserved across both sexes in human reproduction.
D. the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n: Both the mature ovum and the spermatozoon must be haploid (n) to ensure that fertilization restores the proper diploid (2n) number. If a sperm were diploid, the resulting zygote would be triploid, a condition that is generally incompatible with human life. Both gametes undergo reductional division.
E. in spermatogenesis, the sperm have a diploid number(2n): Sperm are produced through meiosis, which specifically reduces the chromosome count from 46 to 23. A diploid sperm would defeat the purpose of sexual reproduction and genetic recombination. The haploid nature of the sperm is essential for successful fusion with the haploid secondary oocyte.
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