The healthcare provider prescribes dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min intravenously (IV) for client who weighs 60 kg. The IV bag contains dopamine 200 mg in dextrose 5% in water (DW) 250 mL. The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour? (Enter numerical value only.)
The Correct Answer is ["9"]
Here are the steps you can follow to calculate the infusion pump flow rate:
Step 1: Calculate the prescribed dose in mcg/min
- Dose per weight: 2 mcg/kg/min * 60 kg = 120 mcg/min
Step 2: Convert the concentration in the IV bag to mcg/mL
- Convert mg to mcg: 200 mg * 1000 mcg/mg = 200,000 mcg
- Concentration: 200,000 mcg / 250 mL = 800 mcg/mL
Step 3: Calculate the flow rate in mL/min
- Flow rate: 120 mcg/min / 800 mcg/mL = 0.15 mL/min
Step 4: Convert the flow rate to mL/hour
- Hour conversion: 0.15 mL/min * 60 min/hour = 9 mL/hour
Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 9 mL/hour.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Reviewing transcutaneous bilirubin levels is unrelated to the presence of an enlarged clitoris. Bilirubin levels are typically assessed to monitor jaundice in newborns.
B) Incorrect- Observing and palpating breast tissue for enlargement is not relevant to the condition of salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Breast tissue enlargement would not be associated with this hormonal disorder.
C) Incorrect- Assessing for signs of fluid retention and bilateral pedal edema is important for monitoring for other conditions, but it is not relevant to the enlarged clitoris seen in this specific scenario.
D) Correct- Salt-wasting congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that results in a deficiency of certain enzymes required for cortisol and aldosterone production. This deficiency leads to an overproduction of androgens, which can cause virilization of female external genitalia. The enlarged clitoris is a result of increased androgen levels. Explaining this finding to the mother provides her with accurate information about the condition and its effects on the infant's anatomy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort:
- This child is reporting discomfort, which is concerning, but it doesn't indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. However, a thorough assessment is needed to rule out any serious injuries, especially to the spine.
B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia:
- While a possible broken tibia requires attention, it is not as immediately critical as symptoms such as projectile vomiting. Splinting can help stabilize the limb, but it is not an emergency that requires immediate attention compared to potential neurological issues.
C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities:
- Superficial lacerations, although they require care, are generally not immediately life-threatening. The child needs appropriate wound care and assessment for any deeper injuries, but this can be addressed in a timely manner without immediate urgency.
D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting:
- This is the most concerning presentation among the options. Headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting could be indicative of a severe head injury, and these neurological symptoms require urgent evaluation to assess for conditions such as a concussion, intracranial bleed, or increased intracranial pressure.
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