The nurse is assessing the patient’s medication list. Which of the following medications are commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of heart failure? (Select all that apply)

Aspirin

Lisinopril

Insulin Glargine

Furosemide (Lasix)

Metoprolol

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : B,D,E

Choice A reason: Aspirin prevents thrombosis in coronary disease, not a primary heart failure treatment. It reduces ischemic risk but doesn’t address fluid overload or cardiac workload, lacking direct symptom relief in heart failure management.

Choice B reason: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, reduces afterload and preload by vasodilation, easing heart strain. It manages heart failure symptoms like dyspnea by improving cardiac output, a cornerstone therapy for pump dysfunction.

Choice C reason: Insulin Glargine controls diabetes, not heart failure symptoms. It manages glucose, indirectly benefiting cardiovascular health, but doesn’t relieve congestion or improve hemodynamics, making it irrelevant to direct symptom management.

Choice D reason: Furosemide, a diuretic, reduces fluid overload in heart failure, alleviating dyspnea and edema. It lowers preload by increasing urine output, directly targeting congestion, a key symptom, in evidence-based practice.

Choice E reason: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate, reducing myocardial demand in heart failure. It improves ejection fraction and symptoms like fatigue, a standard therapy for stabilizing cardiac function long-term.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: CF-related diabetes (CFRD) from pancreatic damage requires insulin, as glucose of 180-250 mg/dL indicates insulin deficiency. Teaching administration addresses this directly, aligning with standard CFRD management for glycemic control.

Choice B reason: Oral hypoglycemics aren’t effective in CFRD, which stems from insulin lack, not resistance. Glucose levels of 180-250 mg/dL need insulin, making this inappropriate for CF’s unique endocrine pathology.

Choice C reason: Diet impacts glucose, but CFRD requires insulin first, not just dietary control. Levels of 180-250 mg/dL exceed dietary management alone, so this is secondary to initiating insulin therapy in CF.

Choice D reason: Pancreatic enzymes aid digestion in CF, not glucose control directly. Evaluating use is routine, but hyperglycemia of 180-250 mg/dL points to CFRD, necessitating insulin over enzyme adjustment.

A. Instill a vasoconstrictor medication into the affected nare. B. Pack the affected nare tightly with an epistaxis balloon. C. Obtain silver nitrate that may be needed for cauterization. D. Apply squeezing pressure to the nostrils for 10 minutes.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Vasoconstrictors like oxymetazoline shrink vessels, aiding epistaxis control. It’s a secondary step requiring preparation, not first, as direct pressure is faster, non-invasive, and effective for initial hemostasis in most anterior bleeds.

Choice B reason: Packing with a balloon stops severe bleeding but is invasive and later in management. Pressure is the first, simpler action; packing escalates care unnecessarily before basic measures are tried in acute epistaxis.

Choice C reason: Silver nitrate cauterizes vessels, useful for persistent bleeding. It’s not first, requiring setup and assessment after pressure fails, as most epistaxis resolves with compression, making this a subsequent intervention.

Choice D reason: Squeezing nostrils compresses Kiesselbach’s plexus, stopping most anterior nosebleeds within 10 minutes. It’s the immediate, evidence-based first action, non-invasive, and effective, prioritizing rapid control before escalating to other methods.

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The nurse is assessing the patient’s medication list. Which of the following medications are commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of heart failure? (Select all that apply)

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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