The nurse is caring for a client whose sudden onset of sinus bradycardia is not responding adequately to atropine.
What might be the treatment of choice for this client?
Transcutaneous pacemaker.
Implanted pacemaker.
Asynchronous defibrillator.
Synchronized cardioversion.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Transcutaneous pacing is the immediate treatment of choice for symptomatic sinus bradycardia that does not respond to atropine. This non-invasive method delivers electrical impulses through large electrode pads placed on the chest and back to stimulate ventricular contraction. It serves as a crucial bridge until more definitive treatments, like a transvenous or permanent pacemaker, can be established. It is rapid to initiate and effective in maintaining an adequate heart rate and cardiac output.
Choice B rationale
An implanted or permanent pacemaker is a long-term solution for chronic or irreversible bradycardia, but it is not the immediate treatment for an acute, sudden-onset event in an unstable patient. The placement of a permanent device requires a surgical procedure and time for preparation. In an emergency where a patient is not responding to atropine, a faster, temporary method like transcutaneous pacing must be used first to stabilize the patient before considering a permanent implant.
Choice C rationale
An asynchronous defibrillator is used to deliver high-energy shocks to treat pulseless rhythms like ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. It is not used for bradycardia, as the heart still has organized, albeit slow, electrical activity. Applying an unsynchronized shock to a patient with a pulse could induce a more dangerous rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, by hitting the T wave. Defibrillation is entirely inappropriate for a slow heart rate with a pulse.
Choice D rationale
Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachydysrhythmias, such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. The goal is to slow down or reset a fast heart rate. Using cardioversion on a patient with sinus bradycardia would be counterproductive and dangerous, as the patient's heart rate is already too slow. This intervention is designed to interrupt fast circuits, not to provide the regular stimulus needed to increase a slow rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
For a client in acute heart failure following a myocardial infarction, the administration of 0.9 percent sodium chloride is often contraindicated or requires extreme caution. Acute heart failure involves the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to pulmonary congestion and systemic fluid volume excess. Adding isotonic saline, which remains in the extracellular space, can worsen pulmonary edema and increase the workload on the failing left ventricle. The nurse should clarify this order to prevent further respiratory distress and cardiac strain.
Choice B rationale
Bumetanide is a potent loop diuretic used to rapidly reduce fluid volume in patients with acute heart failure and pulmonary congestion. A dose of 1 mg IV bolus every 12 hours is a standard intervention aimed at promoting diuresis and reducing preload. This helps clear fluid from the lungs and improves oxygenation. The nurse would monitor urine output and electrolyte levels, specifically looking for hypokalemia, as loop diuretics cause the kidneys to excrete potassium along with water and sodium.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring serum potassium is a critical and appropriate action for a patient with heart failure and a recent myocardial infarction. Potassium levels must stay within 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L to maintain cardiac electrical stability. Many heart failure treatments, including diuretics and ACE inhibitors, significantly alter potassium levels. In the context of an injured myocardium following an infarct, any electrolyte imbalance can trigger lethal arrhythmias. Therefore, obtaining baseline and serial potassium levels is a standard of care that does not require clarification.
Choice D rationale
Morphine sulfate is frequently used in the treatment of acute heart failure and myocardial infarction. Beyond its analgesic properties for chest pain, morphine acts as a vasodilator, which reduces both preload and afterload. This effect decreases the myocardial oxygen demand and helps alleviate the anxiety associated with dyspnea. A dose of 2 mg IV bolus every 2 hours as needed is a common and appropriate prescription to manage symptoms and improve hemodynamics in the acute phase of cardiac distress.
Correct Answer is ["C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Orthopnea refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is typically a hallmark sign of chronic heart failure or pulmonary edema. While an acute myocardial infarction can lead to acute heart failure, orthopnea is not considered a classic or universal presenting symptom of the initial ischemic event itself. Assessment focuses on signs of sympathetic nervous system activation and direct cardiac distress rather than positional breathing difficulties.
Choice B rationale
Headaches are not a characteristic clinical manifestation of an acute myocardial infarction. While a patient might experience a headache due to high blood pressure or as a side effect of nitroglycerin administration, it does not stem from the underlying myocardial ischemia or necrosis. The primary pain associated with an MI is located in the chest, jaw, or arms, reflecting the dermatomal distribution of cardiac sensory nerves during an oxygen mismatch.
Choice C rationale
Diaphoresis is a common finding during an acute myocardial infarction due to the massive activation of the sympathetic nervous system. When cardiac output drops or pain becomes intense, the body initiates a fight or flight response, leading to profuse sweating. This is often described as a cold and clammy sensation. This compensatory mechanism is a key diagnostic indicator that helps clinicians distinguish significant cardiac events from less severe causes of chest pain.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia occurs as the heart attempts to compensate for reduced stroke volume and myocardial injury. The sympathetic nervous system releases catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which increase the heart rate to maintain systemic perfusion. During an acute MI, the body senses a decrease in effective circulating volume or oxygen delivery, triggering this rapid heart rate. Monitoring for tachycardia is essential as it also increases myocardial oxygen demand, potentially worsening the underlying ischemia.
Choice E rationale
Nausea and vomiting are frequent manifestations of an acute myocardial infarction, particularly those involving the inferior wall of the heart. This occurs due to a vasovagal reflex or the proximity of the diaphragmatic surface of the heart to the gastrointestinal tract. Pain and systemic stress also slow gastric motility, contributing to gastrointestinal upset. Recognizing nausea as a potential cardiac symptom is vital, especially in populations like women or the elderly.
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