The nurse is caring for a client with respiratory failure. The client is lethargic and slow to follow commands. Current vital signs are: BP 88/52, pulse 132, respirations 8, and SPO2 84% on 35% Venturi mask. The nurse would anticipate which medical prescription?

Endotracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation

Use of bi-level positive airway pressure ventilation (BiPAP)

Administration of 100% oxygen by mask

Insertion of an oral airway device to maintain the airway

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Endotracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation:
Given the client’s lethargy, slow response to commands, and critical vital signs (e.g., low blood pressure of 88/52, high pulse rate of 132, respiratory rate of 8, and oxygen saturation of 84%), the client is in severe respiratory distress and may be at risk for respiratory failure. The low SpO2 of 84% on a 35% Venturi mask indicates that the client is not adequately oxygenating despite non-invasive oxygen support. In such situations, endotracheal intubation with mechanical ventilation is required to ensure adequate ventilation, oxygenation, and airway protection. This is the most appropriate intervention for a client in respiratory failure who is not responding to less invasive interventions like oxygen therapy or non-invasive ventilation.

B) Use of bi-level positive airway pressure ventilation (BiPAP):
BiPAP is a non-invasive ventilation option that is often used for patients with respiratory failure, particularly those with obstructive or central sleep apnea or those in the early stages of acute respiratory failure (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbations). However, given the client’s level of lethargy and deteriorating vital signs, BiPAP may not be sufficient. This client is showing signs of severe respiratory distress and requires more invasive management, such as endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, to maintain an open airway and ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

C) Administration of 100% oxygen by mask:
While oxygen administration is essential to manage respiratory failure, providing 100% oxygen via mask alone is unlikely to resolve the client's underlying issues, especially since the client’s oxygen saturation is critically low (84%) on 35% Venturi mask. Simply increasing the oxygen concentration will not be effective if the client’s respiratory failure is severe and the airway is compromised. More aggressive interventions, such as intubation, are necessary to manage the client’s airway and respiratory function appropriately.

D) Insertion of an oral airway device to maintain the airway:
An oral airway device is typically used for clients who are unconscious or semi-conscious to help keep the airway open. However, in this case, the client is lethargic but not fully unconscious, and the underlying issue is respiratory failure, not just a blocked airway. An oral airway device will not address the client’s inadequate ventilation or oxygenation and will not be sufficient to manage the client’s critical condition. The client requires intubation and mechanical ventilation to ensure adequate airway management and respiratory support.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Remove the BIPAP mask:
While removing the BIPAP mask may seem like a reasonable action to take in response to vomiting, it is not the immediate priority. The most urgent issue in this scenario is preventing aspiration and maintaining the client’s airway. Removing the mask may be necessary later for resuscitation or further interventions, but the first priority is protecting the airway and preventing aspiration pneumonia, which is best done by positioning the client appropriately. BIPAP should only be removed if the client's airway cannot be maintained, or if there is a need for intubation or other advanced airway management.

B. Assist the client to a side-lying position: When a client on BIPAP (bi-level positive airway pressure) begins to vomit, the priority nursing intervention is to protect the airway and prevent aspiration. The side-lying position is the most effective way to prevent aspiration of vomit into the lungs, as it allows the contents to drain from the mouth and reduces the risk of airway obstruction. This position also ensures that the client’s airway remains open while minimizing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. The side-lying position is crucial in managing nausea and vomiting in clients on non-invasive ventilation, like BIPAP.

C. Administer ondansetron intravenously (IV):
Ondansetron is an effective antiemetic and may be appropriate to administer if the client’s nausea continues. However, nausea and vomiting are secondary concerns in this situation compared to airway protection. The first priority is to position the client to prevent aspiration of vomit. Once the client is in a safe position, ondansetron may be administered to address the nausea and prevent further vomiting, but this does not address the immediate airway risk.

D. Notify the primary care provider:
While notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary at some point, the priority nursing intervention is to manage the immediate concern of the client vomiting while on BIPAP. The primary concern at this point is protecting the airway and preventing aspiration. The healthcare provider may need to be informed about the situation, but the nurse must first ensure the client's safety through appropriate positioning.

A. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (normal 3.5 mEq/L-5.3 mEq/L.) B. T wave depression on electrocardiogram C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute D. Blood pressure of 90/50

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L: A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is slightly elevated but is still within a potentially acceptable range (normal is 3.5-5.3 mEq/L). While elevated potassium can be a concern, particularly in the context of an MI or with certain medications (like potassium-sparing diuretics), this level is not critically high. The nurse should monitor the potassium levels, but this is not an urgent finding requiring immediate reporting unless it increases further or is accompanied by significant symptoms (such as arrhythmias).

B. T wave depression on electrocardiogram (ECG): T wave depression can be a sign of ischemia or injury, which is common in the setting of an acute myocardial infarction. However, T wave changes are expected in this context and do not indicate an immediate emergency. The nurse should continue to monitor the ECG for any progression or worsening of ischemic changes but should prioritize concerns such as hypotension or worsening clinical status over this finding.

C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is within normal limits (60-100 beats per minute), especially in the early stages of an MI. Nitroglycerin may cause a reflex tachycardia as a compensatory response to the decreased blood pressure, but a heart rate of 90 bpm is not an alarming finding. The nurse should continue to monitor the heart rate, but it is not the most pressing concern compared to hypotension. 4o mini

D. Blood pressure of 90/50: A blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg is significantly low and could indicate that the client is experiencing hypotension, which is a known side effect of nitroglycerin infusion. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, which can reduce blood pressure, especially in clients who are already at risk due to an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Low blood pressure can compromise perfusion to vital organs, including the heart, brain, and kidneys, and may lead to shock if not corrected promptly. This finding should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider, as it may require adjustment of the nitroglycerin dosage or discontinuation of the infusion.

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The nurse is caring for a client with respiratory failure. The client is lethargic and slow to follow commands. Current vital signs are: BP 88/52, pulse 132, respirations 8, and SPO2 84% on 35% Venturi mask. The nurse would anticipate which medical prescription?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with acute respiratory failure who has been placed on bi-level positive airway pressure (BIPAP) for adequate ventilation. The client complains of nausea and begins to vomit. The priority nursing intervention would be:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is to begin a nitroglycerin infusion for a client diagnosed with an anterior wall myocardial infarction. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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