The nurse is caring for a hospitalized toddler.
What does the nurse determine is the most appropriate play activity for this client?
Painting a picture.
Playing peek-a-boo.
Listening to music.
Playing with a push-pull toy.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Painting a picture requires fine motor skills and a level of artistic expression that may be beyond a typical toddler's developmental stage. While some toddlers may enjoy making marks on paper, the structured activity of painting a picture is more appropriate for preschoolers. Toddlers are still developing hand-eye coordination and may become frustrated with a task that requires precision.
Choice B rationale
Playing peek-a-boo is a game typically enjoyed by infants who are learning about object permanence. While a toddler may still find it amusing, it is not the most developmentally appropriate activity for a hospitalized toddler who is developing gross motor skills, independence, and exploring their environment. The game does not support the toddler's need for autonomy and movement.
Choice C rationale
Listening to music can be a soothing and pleasant activity for a toddler, especially in a hospital setting. However, it is a passive activity. The most appropriate play for a toddler is one that engages their newfound gross motor skills, sense of autonomy, and exploration. A passive activity like listening to music does not fully meet the developmental needs of this age group.
Choice D rationale
Playing with a push-pull toy is the most appropriate activity for a toddler. Toddlers are in the developmental stage of mastering walking and running. These toys support the development of gross motor skills, coordination, and balance. The activity also encourages independent exploration and a sense of mastery, which aligns with the toddler's psychosocial stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A newborn weighing 10 lbs 13 ounces (4595 grams) is classified as macrosomic. The delivery of a macrosomic infant is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus is overstretched due to the large fetus, which can lead to uterine atony. Uterine atony is the primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage, as the myometrium fails to contract effectively to compress the maternal blood vessels.
Choice B rationale
Thrombosis is a potential complication postpartum, but it is not the most significant risk associated with the birth of a macrosomic infant. The major risk factor linked specifically to a large baby is uterine atony, which leads to hemorrhage. While a P6006 client is at a higher risk for all postpartum complications due to high parity, the most immediate and specific risk here is hemorrhage due to uterine overdistention.
Choice C rationale
Seizures can occur postpartum, primarily in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia. However, there is no information in the scenario to suggest the client has a history of preeclampsia. Therefore, while a possibility, it is not the most likely complication based on the given information. The birth of a macrosomic infant is directly linked to the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum infection is a potential complication, especially with a history of multiple deliveries and potential for birth trauma. However, this is not the most immediate or highest risk factor directly associated with the delivery of a macrosomic infant. The primary risk from uterine overdistention is the failure of the uterus to contract and control bleeding, making hemorrhage the most significant concern.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Measuring blood pressure hourly is an important part of monitoring a postpartum client, but it is not the priority. While vital signs are crucial, the immediate physiological threat is ongoing hemorrhage from uterine atony, which must be addressed directly to prevent shock.
Choice B rationale
Preparing to administer blood products may become necessary if the client experiences significant blood loss, but it is not the initial priority. The first intervention is to stop or reduce the bleeding by promoting uterine contraction, which will minimize the need for subsequent blood transfusions.
Choice C rationale
Administering intravenous fluids is a supportive measure to maintain circulatory volume, but it does not address the underlying cause of the hemorrhage. The priority is to stimulate uterine contractions to compress the myometrial arteries and prevent further blood loss.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an oxytocin infusion is the priority nursing intervention. Oxytocin is a potent uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions, causing the myometrium to clamp down on blood vessels at the placental site, thereby reducing postpartum hemorrhage.
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