The nurse is caring for a postoperative adult client who has developed pneumonia. The nurse should assess the client frequently for symptoms of:

Epiglottitis

Bronchospasm

Atelectasis

Croup

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Epiglottitis is an acute bacterial infection causing epiglottal swelling, primarily in children, leading to airway obstruction. Postoperative pneumonia, caused by bacterial infection or aspiration, increases mucus production and impairs gas exchange but does not typically cause epiglottal inflammation. Assessing for epiglottitis is irrelevant, as it’s unrelated to pneumonia’s pathophysiology, which involves alveolar consolidation and impaired oxygenation.

Choice B reason: Bronchospasm involves airway constriction due to smooth muscle contraction, common in asthma or COPD. Postoperative pneumonia, characterized by alveolar infection and consolidation, reduces lung compliance and gas exchange but rarely causes bronchospasm. Assessing for bronchospasm is less relevant, as pneumonia primarily affects alveoli, not bronchial smooth muscle, making this an unlikely complication to monitor.

Choice C reason: Atelectasis, the collapse of alveoli, is a common postoperative complication, especially with pneumonia, due to mucus accumulation and reduced lung expansion. This impairs gas exchange, increasing hypoxia risk. Frequent assessment for atelectasis, indicated by diminished breath sounds and hypoxemia, is critical, as it exacerbates pneumonia’s effects on alveolar ventilation and requires interventions like deep breathing exercises.

Choice D reason: Croup is a viral infection causing laryngeal and tracheal swelling, primarily in children, leading to a barking cough. Postoperative pneumonia in adults involves bacterial alveolar infection, not upper airway inflammation. Assessing for croup is inappropriate, as it’s unrelated to pneumonia’s pathophysiology, which focuses on lower respiratory tract consolidation and impaired gas exchange.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering eye drops to the lower conjunctival sac ensures optimal drug absorption and minimizes corneal irritation. The conjunctival sac, a mucous membrane, allows medication to spread across the eye surface, treating conjunctivitis by targeting bacterial or inflammatory processes. This method avoids systemic absorption via the nasolacrimal duct, enhancing local efficacy and safety.

Choice B reason: Dropping medication onto the cornea risks irritation or injury, as the cornea is a sensitive, avascular tissue responsible for light refraction. Conjunctivitis treatment requires medication to contact the conjunctiva, not the cornea directly. This method could cause discomfort and reduce drug efficacy, as it does not target the inflamed conjunctival tissue.

Choice C reason: The sclera by the outer canthus is not ideal for eye drop administration. The sclera, a tough connective tissue, has poor drug absorption compared to the conjunctival sac. Drops placed here may run off, reducing contact with the inflamed conjunctiva in conjunctivitis, leading to ineffective treatment and potential waste of medication.

Choice D reason: The sclera by the inner canthus is near the nasolacrimal duct, increasing the risk of systemic drug absorption rather than local treatment of conjunctivitis. Drops should target the lower conjunctival sac to ensure contact with the inflamed tissue, maximizing therapeutic effect while minimizing systemic side effects like tachycardia from certain medications.

A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. Residual prevention

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Teaching calcium intake to prevent bone loss is primary prevention, aimed at reducing disease risk before it occurs. Calcium strengthens bone density, reducing osteoporosis risk by supporting osteoblast activity and mineralization. This proactive measure prevents bone loss in healthy individuals, addressing the physiological need for calcium to maintain skeletal integrity before pathology develops.

Choice B reason: Secondary prevention involves early detection of disease, like screening for osteoporosis via bone density scans. Teaching calcium intake aims to prevent bone loss before it occurs, not detect it. Calcium supports bone remodeling, but secondary prevention targets existing asymptomatic conditions, making this incorrect for a strategy focused on preventing initial bone loss.

Choice C reason: Tertiary prevention manages existing disease to prevent complications, like rehabilitation after an osteoporotic fracture. Teaching calcium intake prevents bone loss before disease onset, aligning with primary prevention. Calcium enhances bone strength, but tertiary prevention focuses on restoring function post-disease, not preventing initial bone density loss, making this incorrect.

Choice D reason: Residual prevention is not a recognized term in public health. Teaching calcium intake is primary prevention, as it promotes bone health to prevent osteoporosis. Calcium supports bone matrix formation, reducing fracture risk. Incorrect terms like residual prevention do not apply, as prevention levels are clearly defined as primary, secondary, or tertiary in medical practice.

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The nurse is caring for a postoperative adult client who has developed pneumonia. The nurse should assess the client frequently for symptoms of:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is to administer eye drops four times per day to a patient diagnosed with conjunctivitis. The nurse should administer the medication by gently dropping the medication onto which of the following areas?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is teaching clients on the need for calcium intake to prevent bone loss. What level of prevention does this represent?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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