The nurse is conducting an assessment of a patient's nutritional status prior to post pyloric intubation. When assessing the patient's most recent laboratory values the nurse should pay particular attention to the patient's level of
Prealbumin
Alkaline phosphatase
Blood glucose
Potassium
The Correct Answer is A
Nutritional status assessment prior to post-pyloric intubation involves evaluating laboratory and clinical indicators of protein stores and overall nutritional adequacy. Patients requiring enteral feeding support are often at risk for malnutrition due to illness, reduced intake, or impaired absorption. Laboratory markers help determine protein-energy status and guide nutritional interventions. Among these, certain serum proteins are particularly sensitive indicators of short-term nutritional changes.
Rationale:
A. Prealbumin is the most sensitive marker for assessing current nutritional status because it has a short half-life and responds quickly to changes in protein intake. It reflects recent nutritional adequacy and is commonly used to evaluate protein-energy malnutrition. Monitoring prealbumin helps guide decisions regarding the initiation and adequacy of enteral nutrition support.
B. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme related to liver function, bile duct integrity, and bone metabolism. While it may be elevated in liver disease or bone disorders, it does not directly reflect nutritional protein status. It is not routinely used to assess malnutrition prior to enteral feeding.
C. Blood glucose is important in overall metabolic monitoring, especially in patients receiving enteral or parenteral nutrition, but it does not specifically reflect protein or calorie nutritional status. Abnormal glucose levels may indicate diabetes or stress response but are not primary indicators of malnutrition.
D. Potassium is an electrolyte that reflects fluid and electrolyte balance rather than nutritional protein stores. Although it may be affected in malnourished patients, it is not a reliable marker for assessing nutritional status prior to feeding tube placement. Its primary relevance is in cardiac and neuromuscular function monitoring.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a highly concentrated intravenous solution that provides essential nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and electrolytes. Because it contains a significant amount of dextrose, abrupt discontinuation can lead to severe hypoglycemia. To prevent this complication, a dextrose-containing IV solution is used as a temporary measure until the next TPN bag is available. This ensures continuous glucose supply and metabolic stability.
Rationale:
A. Normal saline does not contain glucose and therefore does not prevent hypoglycemia when TPN is abruptly stopped. Administering only normal saline can lead to a rapid drop in blood glucose levels, placing the client at risk for dizziness, confusion, seizures, or coma. It does not provide the metabolic support needed after interruption of TPN.
B. 10% dextrose in water (D10W) is the appropriate replacement because it provides a source of glucose, helping prevent rebound hypoglycemia when TPN is temporarily discontinued. Since TPN contains high dextrose concentrations, the body becomes adapted to continuous glucose supply. Administering D10W maintains blood glucose levels until TPN can be safely resumed.
C. 0.45% sodium chloride is a hypotonic solution that provides free water but no glucose. It does not prevent hypoglycemia and may worsen electrolyte imbalances if used as a substitute for TPN. Therefore, it is not appropriate for maintaining metabolic stability in this situation.
D. Lactated Ringer’s solution contains electrolytes but no dextrose, making it unsuitable for preventing hypoglycemia after abrupt TPN discontinuation. It is primarily used for fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement, not for maintaining glucose levels. Using it in this context does not address the immediate risk associated with stopping TPN.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are both classified as inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD), characterized by chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract due to an abnormal immune response. While they differ in location, depth of tissue involvement, and complications, they share a common underlying pathophysiology involving immune-mediated intestinal inflammation. Understanding their similarities and differences helps guide appropriate management and patient education. Both conditions require long-term medical therapy to control inflammation and prevent relapse.
Rationale:
A. Both do not necessarily require frequent surgery because surgical intervention is more common in severe or refractory cases. Ulcerative colitis may be cured with colectomy, while Crohn’s disease often recurs even after surgery. Therefore, surgery is not a universal or defining similarity between the two conditions.
B. Both are inflammatory conditions affecting the gastrointestinal tract and are classified under inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). They involve chronic immune-mediated inflammation that leads to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. Despite differences in pattern and location, inflammation is the shared pathological mechanism in both diseases.
C. Both do not begin in the rectum. Ulcerative colitis typically starts in the rectum and extends proximally in a continuous pattern, whereas Crohn’s disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from mouth to anus and often has skip lesions. This makes rectal involvement a distinguishing feature rather than a shared one.
D. Both do not consistently manifest fistula formation. Fistulas are more characteristic of Crohn’s disease due to its transmural inflammation, which can extend through all layers of the bowel wall. Ulcerative colitis is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers and does not typically cause fistulas.
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