The nurse is performing a peripheral vascular assessment of an adult client. The nurse is palpating the client's peripheral pulses but knows that some are not palpable, even in healthy clients. What pulse is not palpable in a large proportion of healthy clients?

Brachial

Ulnar

Femoral

Radial

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Brachial pulse, in the upper arm, is strong and palpable in healthy adults, used for blood pressure cuffs. Its deep location ensures consistent detection, unlike weaker pulses, making it reliably felt across most individuals without vascular issues here.

Choice B reason: Ulnar pulse, near the wrist’s pinky side, is often faint or not palpable in many healthy people due to its depth and smaller artery size. This variability distinguishes it as less detectable compared to other major pulses consistently.

Choice C reason: Femoral pulse, in the groin, is robust and palpable in healthy adults, reflecting large artery flow to the legs. Its prominence ensures detection, unlike the ulnar, making it a standard check not commonly absent in normal assessments fully.

Choice D reason: Radial pulse, at the wrist’s thumb side, is easily palpable in healthy clients, a key vital sign check. Its superficial location ensures consistent detection, contrasting with the ulnar’s frequent elusiveness in normal peripheral exams entirely here.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Human papillomavirus (HPV), especially types 16 and 18, is the primary cervical cancer risk, causing 99% of cases. This STI triggers oncogenic changes in cervical cells, making it the key factor for this class accurately and fully here.
Choice B reason: HIV weakens immunity, raising HPV persistence risk, but isn’t a direct cervical cancer cause. Its role is secondary, amplifying HPV effects, not independently driving carcinogenesis, excluding it as the major factor comprehensively here entirely.
Choice C reason: Syphilis, a bacterial STI, causes sores, not cervical cancer. It lacks the viral oncogenic mechanism of HPV, rendering it irrelevant as a primary risk factor for this malignancy in the educational context fully here.
Choice D reason: Gonorrhea causes inflammation, not cancer. This bacterial STI doesn’t alter cervical DNA like HPV, making it an incorrect choice for a major risk factor in cervical cancer education for these students entirely here fully.

A. Prolonged tonsillar enlargement B. History of allergies C. Incomplete immunization record D. History of epistaxis nosebleeds

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Prolonged tonsillar enlargement may cause throat issues or obstruction, but rhinorrhea stems from nasal inflammation, not tonsils. This focuses on oropharyngeal anatomy, missing the direct nasal etiology tied to runny nose in upper airway complaints here entirely.

Choice B reason: Allergies trigger nasal inflammation via histamine, causing rhinorrhea as IgE-mediated mast cells release mediators. A history of this is key, directly linking environmental triggers to the client’s runny nose, making it the most relevant assessment area accurately.

Choice C reason: Incomplete immunizations increase infection risk, but rhinorrhea more commonly ties to allergies or viruses than vaccine-preventable diseases here. This is less specific to the symptom’s etiology without fever or systemic signs, reducing its pertinence significantly.

Choice D reason: Epistaxis (nosebleeds) relates to vascular fragility, not mucus production like rhinorrhea. Past bleeding doesn’t explain runny nose, focusing on a separate nasal issue, making it less relevant to the upper airway complaint’s root cause in this case fully.

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The nurse is performing a peripheral vascular assessment of an adult client. The nurse is palpating the client's peripheral pulses but knows that some are not palpable, even in healthy clients. What pulse is not palpable in a large proportion of healthy clients?

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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