The nurse is performing a peripheral vascular assessment of an adult client. The nurse is palpating the client's peripheral pulses but knows that some are not palpable, even in healthy clients. What pulse is not palpable in a large proportion of healthy clients?
Brachial
Ulnar
Femoral
Radial
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Brachial pulse, in the upper arm, is strong and palpable in healthy adults, used for blood pressure cuffs. Its deep location ensures consistent detection, unlike weaker pulses, making it reliably felt across most individuals without vascular issues here.
Choice B reason: Ulnar pulse, near the wrist’s pinky side, is often faint or not palpable in many healthy people due to its depth and smaller artery size. This variability distinguishes it as less detectable compared to other major pulses consistently.
Choice C reason: Femoral pulse, in the groin, is robust and palpable in healthy adults, reflecting large artery flow to the legs. Its prominence ensures detection, unlike the ulnar, making it a standard check not commonly absent in normal assessments fully.
Choice D reason: Radial pulse, at the wrist’s thumb side, is easily palpable in healthy clients, a key vital sign check. Its superficial location ensures consistent detection, contrasting with the ulnar’s frequent elusiveness in normal peripheral exams entirely here.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ischemic stroke causes focal deficits like weakness, not neck flexion-induced leg pain. This vascular event lacks meningeal irritation signs, misaligning with the positive Brudzinski’s sign of knee bending and neck pain in this assessment fully here.
Choice B reason: Trigeminal neuralgia triggers facial pain, not leg or neck pain with flexion. This cranial nerve V issue doesn’t involve meningeal inflammation, excluding it from the systemic response seen in this neck maneuver entirely and accurately here.
Choice C reason: Meningitis causes meningeal irritation; neck flexion (Brudzinski’s sign) elicits leg pain and knee bending. Neck pain aligns with inflammation, making this the likely diagnosis for the client’s response to this specific neurological test comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: Bell’s palsy affects cranial nerve VII, causing facial paralysis, not leg or neck pain. This peripheral nerve issue lacks the meningeal signs triggered by neck flexion, ruling it out as the cause in this scenario fully here.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Thrush, a fungal infection from Candida, needs treatment but isn’t immediately urgent unless severe. It’s common in immunocompromised states, manageable with antifungals, lacking the acute, life-threatening potential requiring instant medical escalation in most typical cases here.
Choice B reason: Leukoplakia, white patches in the mouth, may signal precancerous changes linked to oral cancer. Its potential malignancy demands immediate follow-up for biopsy and intervention, distinguishing it as the most urgent diagnosis among these options clearly and critically.
Choice C reason: Gingivitis, gum inflammation, requires dental care but isn’t an immediate medical emergency. It’s reversible with hygiene, not posing the rapid progression risk of leukoplakia, making it less urgent for prompt physician referral in this context fully.
Choice D reason: Canker sores, benign ulcers, heal without intervention and lack systemic threat. Unlike leukoplakia’s cancer risk, they don’t warrant urgent follow-up, remaining a self-limiting condition not necessitating immediate medical escalation beyond routine management here entirely.
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