The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with COPD. Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?

Dry mouth

Anxiety

Tachycardia

Urine retention

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Dry mouth

Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of ipratropium (Atrovent) due to its anticholinergic properties. Anticholinergic medications can inhibit saliva production, leading to a sensation of dryness in the mouth. While uncomfortable, dry mouth tends to improve over time as the body adjusts to the medication. Patients can manage dry mouth by increasing fluid intake and practicing good oral hygiene.

B. Anxiety

Anxiety is not a common adverse effect of ipratropium (Atrovent). While some individuals may experience anxiety as a side effect of certain medications, it is not typically associated with ipratropium. If a patient experiences anxiety while taking ipratropium, it is essential to assess whether it may be related to other factors or medications and to consult a healthcare provider for appropriate management.

C. Tachycardia

Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is not a common adverse effect of ipratropium (Atrovent). While ipratropium is an anticholinergic medication that can affect heart rate in some individuals, tachycardia is not typically reported as a common side effect. However, patients should be monitored for changes in heart rate and other cardiovascular effects while taking ipratropium, especially if they have pre-existing cardiac conditions.

D. Urine retention

Urinary retention is a potential adverse effect of ipratropium (Atrovent) due to its anticholinergic properties. Anticholinergic medications can relax the smooth muscle of the bladder, leading to difficulty emptying the bladder completely. However, urinary retention is less common with ipratropium compared to other anticholinergic medications, such as those used to treat overactive bladder. Patients experiencing urinary retention while taking ipratropium should consult their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Pigeon

A pigeon chest, also known as pectus carinatum, is a deformity of the chest characterized by a protrusion of the sternum and ribs, resulting in a pigeon-like appearance of the chest. This deformity is not typically associated with COPD.

B. Funnel

A funnel chest, also known as pectus excavatum, is a deformity of the chest characterized by a depression or concavity in the sternum, resulting in a funnel-like appearance of the chest. This deformity is not typically associated with COPD.

C. Kyphotic

Kyphosis refers to an exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine, leading to a hunched or rounded upper back. While individuals with severe COPD may develop kyphosis due to chronic respiratory muscle fatigue and increased work of breathing, kyphotic curvature is not specific to COPD and can occur in other conditions as well.

D. Barrel

In COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), the client's chest may take on a barrel shape. This is characterized by an increase in the anterior-posterior diameter of the chest, resulting in a more rounded appearance similar to that of a barrel. This change in chest shape is due to hyperinflation of the lungs, which occurs as a result of air trapping and increased residual volume in the lungs, common in COPD.

A. Assess the patient; check to see if the oxygen is flowing correctly B. Page the MD STAT C. Put up the patient's side rails and apply soft restraints D. Administer an IM sedative

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Assess the patient; check to see if the oxygen is flowing correctly:

This option involves assessing the patient's condition promptly, particularly focusing on the adequacy of oxygenation. Checking the oxygen delivery system ensures that the patient is receiving the prescribed oxygen therapy at the appropriate flow rate. In a patient with shortness of breath (SOB) and increasing confusion and combativeness, hypoxemia (low oxygen levels) could be a contributing factor. Therefore, assessing the oxygen delivery system is crucial to ensure proper oxygenation and address potential causes of the patient's symptoms.

B. Page the MD STAT:

Paging the MD STAT may be necessary after assessing the patient's condition, especially if the patient's symptoms indicate a medical emergency or require immediate intervention. However, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the patient's condition and address any immediate concerns related to oxygenation and respiratory status. While paging the healthcare provider may be necessary, it should not delay the initial assessment and interventions needed to stabilize the patient.

C. Put up the patient's side rails and apply soft restraints:

Applying side rails and soft restraints should not be the first action in response to the patient's symptoms. While patient safety is important, these measures should only be implemented after other interventions have been attempted, and there is a risk of harm to the patient or others due to agitation or combativeness. In this case, the patient's confusion and combativeness may be secondary to hypoxemia, so addressing oxygenation and assessing the patient's condition are the immediate priorities.

D. Administer an IM sedative:

Administering a sedative should not be the first action in this scenario. Sedation may be considered if the patient's agitation or combativeness poses a risk to their safety or interferes with assessment and treatment. However, the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms, such as hypoxemia, should be addressed first. Administering a sedative without addressing the potential cause of the patient's symptoms could mask important clinical indicators and delay appropriate treatment.

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The nurse is providing instruction about ipratropium (Atrovent) to a patient with COPD. Which is a common adverse effect that tends to resolve with therapy?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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