The nurse is providing postoperative care for an adolescent who had an amputation of the left leg for osteosarcoma. The adolescent describes experiencing phantom limb pain. Which non pharmacological intervention should the nurse provide?

A Guide in moving the non affected limb to override the sensation being experienced.

B Reassure that this can be a normal postsurgical sensation.

C Affirm that a prosthetic with physical therapy will gradually improve the symptoms.

D Explain that the sensations of tingling and pain are not real.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Guide in moving the non-affected limb to override the sensation being experienced.
Encouraging movement of the non-affected limb may not effectively address phantom limb pain and could potentially exacerbate discomfort or distress.

B. Reassure that this can be a normal postsurgical sensation.
Phantom limb pain is a common phenomenon after amputation surgeries. Providing reassurance that this sensation is normal can help alleviate anxiety and provide comfort to the adolescent.

C. Affirm that a prosthetic with physical therapy will gradually improve the symptoms.
While a prosthetic limb and physical therapy can help in the long term, they may not immediately address the phantom limb pain experienced in the early postoperative period.

D. Explain that the sensations of tingling and pain are not real.
Invalidating the adolescent's experience of phantom limb pain by suggesting that the sensations are not real may worsen distress and anxiety. It's essential to acknowledge the client's experience and provide supportive care.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Digoxin.
Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that helps increase the force of myocardial contraction and is generally used to treat heart failure. It does not typically pose a significant risk for cardiogenic shock.

B. Hydrochlorothiazide.
Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention in heart failure. It can cause electrolyte imbalances but is not directly linked to causing cardiogenic shock.

C. Nadolol.
Nadolol is a beta-blocker, which can reduce the heart rate and the strength of heart contractions. In a client with severe heart failure, excessive beta-blockade can lead to a significant decrease in cardiac output, increasing the risk for cardiogenic shock.

D. Captopril.
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that helps manage heart failure by reducing afterload and preload.
While it can cause hypotension, it is not typically associated with a direct risk of cardiogenic shock.

A. Blood glucose of 90 mg/dl. (5 mmol/L). B. Potassium level of 4 mEq/L (4 mmol/L) C. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL (130 g/L). D. Serum creatinine of 5 mg/dL (442 pmol/L).

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL is within the normal reference range of 74 to 106 mg/dL, so it is not a concern.
B. A potassium level of 4 mEq/L is also within the normal reference range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L, so it does not need to be reported.
C. Although the hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL is below the reference range provided, it is not critically low and may not be urgent unless the patient has symptoms of anemia or other related issues.
D. A serum creatinine level of 5 mg/dL is significantly higher than the normal reference range of 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL. This indicates renal impairment, which could affect the patient's ability to clear medications used during surgery and could lead to postoperative complications. Therefore, it is crucial to report this finding to the surgeon immediately.

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The nurse is providing postoperative care for an adolescent who had an amputation of the left leg for osteosarcoma. The adolescent describes experiencing phantom limb pain. Which non pharmacological intervention should the nurse provide?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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