The nurse is taking care of an adolescent with osteosarcoma. The parents ask the nurse about treatment. The nurse should make which accurate response about treatment for osteosarcoma?
Bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of long-term survival
Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy
Intensive irradiation is the primary treatment
Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bone marrow transplantation offers the best chance of long-term survival is incorrect. Bone marrow transplantation is not the primary treatment for osteosarcoma. Treatment typically focuses on surgery and chemotherapy.
B. Treatment usually consists of surgery and chemotherapy is correct. The main treatment for osteosarcoma involves a combination of surgery (to remove the tumor) and chemotherapy (to treat any potential metastasis). This approach is the standard for achieving long-term survival in most cases.
C. Intensive irradiation is the primary treatment is incorrect. While radiation therapy can sometimes be used, it is not the primary treatment for osteosarcoma. Surgery and chemotherapy are the main modalities.
D. Amputation of the affected extremity is rarely necessary is incorrect. While limb-sparing surgery is often possible, amputation may still be required in some cases, depending on the location and extent of the tumor. Thus, saying amputation is rarely necessary may be misleading.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Aplastic crisis is caused by a decrease in the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow is correct. Aplastic crisis is often triggered by an infection (such as parvovirus B19), leading to a sudden reduction in red blood cell production, which can exacerbate anemia.
B. Sequestration crisis involves the blockage of small blood vessels by sickled red blood cells is incorrect. This describes a vaso-occlusive crisis, not sequestration crisis. Sequestration crisis involves pooling of blood in the spleen or liver, leading to organ enlargement and circulatory collapse.
C. Vaso-occlusive crisis is characterized by the pooling of large amounts of blood in the spleen and liver is incorrect. Vaso-occlusive crisis is characterized by the blockage of small blood vessels by sickled cells, leading to pain, ischemia, and tissue damage.
D. Aplastic crisis is characterized by the pooling of large amounts of blood in the spleen and liver is incorrect. Aplastic crisis is primarily related to bone marrow failure and reduced red blood cell production, not blood pooling in organs.
E. Sequestration crisis is characterized by the pooling of large amounts of blood in the spleen and liver is correct. In sequestration crisis, the spleen and liver trap large amounts of blood, which can lead to hypovolemic shock and severe anemia.
F. Vaso-occlusive crisis involves the blockage of small blood vessels by sickled red blood cells is correct. Vaso-occlusive crisis occurs when sickled red blood cells obstruct blood flow in small vessels, causing pain, tissue damage, and potential organ dysfunction.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Placing the client in a semi-Fowler's position is appropriate to help alleviate pressure on the brain and improve comfort. This position can also help with respiratory function, which may be compromised in meningitis.
B. Admitting the client to a private room is necessary to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients. Bacterial meningitis is highly contagious, and isolation is important to limit exposure.
C. Implementing seizure precautions is essential in managing a child with bacterial meningitis because the infection can cause increased intracranial pressure, which may lead to seizures.
D. Measuring head circumference every shift is unnecessary for this child, as it is typically done for infants to monitor for signs of hydrocephalus or increased intracranial pressure. In a 6-year-old child, clinical signs and imaging studies are more reliable for monitoring ICP.
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