The nurse knows that acyclovir would most likely be prescribed for which type of infection?
A candida fungal infection
An MRSA bacterial infection
A herpes viral infection
A giardia protozoal infection
The Correct Answer is C
A. A candida fungal infection.: Candida infections are treated with antifungal medications such as fluconazole or nystatin, not acyclovir. Acyclovir is ineffective against fungi because it specifically targets viral DNA synthesis.
B. An MRSA bacterial infection.: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a bacterial infection treated with antibiotics such as vancomycin or linezolid. Acyclovir has no antibacterial properties and would not be effective for MRSA.
C. A herpes viral infection.: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug primarily used to treat infections caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2) and varicella-zoster virus. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication, helping reduce symptom severity and frequency of outbreaks.
D. A giardia protozoal infection.: Giardia infections are caused by protozoa and are typically treated with antiprotozoal medications such as metronidazole. Acyclovir has no activity against protozoa and would not treat this type of infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Treat a superinfection in the patient.: A superinfection occurs when normal flora are disrupted by prolonged antibiotic use, allowing resistant organisms to overgrow. The client has not yet received antibiotics or shown signs of secondary infection.
B. Provide empiric therapy.: Empiric therapy refers to the administration of antibiotics based on the most likely cause of infection before culture results are available. Since the patient is not currently infected and is only preparing for surgery, empiric therapy is not the purpose.
C. Provide prophylactic therapy.: Prophylactic antibiotic therapy is given before certain surgical or invasive procedures to prevent potential infection. Administering antibiotics prior to pacemaker implantation reduces the risk of postoperative infections, such as endocarditis or device-related infections.
D. Provide definitive therapy.: Definitive therapy is used when the specific causative organism has been identified through cultures and sensitivity testing. Because no infection has been diagnosed in this patient, definitive therapy is not appropriate in this preoperative context.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A client with acute, non-infectious diarrhea.: Loperamide is safe and effective for treating acute, non-infectious diarrhea by slowing intestinal motility. It allows increased absorption of water and electrolytes, helping to reduce stool frequency and improve consistency.
B. A client with traveler’s diarrhea.: Loperamide can be used short-term in traveler’s diarrhea when symptoms are not caused by invasive bacteria. It provides symptomatic relief by decreasing bowel movements while the underlying infection is being treated.
C. A client with an E. coli infection.: Loperamide should be avoided in clients with infectious diarrhea caused by organisms such as E. coli, Salmonella, or Shigella. Slowing intestinal motility can trap bacteria and toxins in the gut, worsening the infection and increasing the risk of toxic megacolon.
D. A client who has hyperactive bowel sounds.: Hyperactive bowel sounds alone are not a contraindication to loperamide use. They are expected with diarrhea and may actually improve as the medication reduces peristaltic activity and stool frequency.
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