The physician orders 1000 mL of D5W to infuse over 8 hours. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in drops per minute? Round to the nearest whole number.
21 gtt/min
25 gtt/min
28 gtt/min
31 gtt/min
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: To calculate drip rate: (1000 mL ÷ 8 hours) × (10 gtt/mL ÷ 60 min/hour) = 1250 ÷ 60 = 20.83 gtt/min. Rounded to the nearest whole number, 21 gtt/min is correct for the infusion.
Choice B reason: A rate of 25 gtt/min overestimates the infusion, delivering 1000 mL in about 6.7 hours, not 8. The calculated rate is 20.83 gtt/min, making 25 incorrect after rounding to 21.
Choice C reason: 28 gtt/min delivers 1000 mL too quickly (about 6 hours). The formula yields 20.83 gtt/min, and rounding to 21 is accurate, making 28 gtt/min incorrect for the ordered infusion.
Choice D reason: 31 gtt/min significantly exceeds the required rate, infusing 1000 mL in about 5.4 hours. The correct rate is 20.83 gtt/min, rounded to 21, making 31 gtt/min incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Focusing on survival dismisses the client’s emotional distress, potentially invalidating their feelings. Addressing body image concerns empathetically fosters trust, making this an inappropriate and unsupportive response.
Choice B reason: Inviting the client to discuss feelings about the incision validates their emotions and promotes therapeutic communication. This open-ended approach supports coping with body image changes, making it the best response.
Choice C reason: Normalizing feelings is helpful, but stating the incision will heal soon minimizes the client’s distress. Exploring emotions is more therapeutic, as healing does not address body image, making this less effective.
Choice D reason: Discussing clothing to cover the incision is practical but avoids the emotional issue. Addressing feelings first supports psychological adjustment, making this a secondary intervention compared to open dialogue.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Serosanguineous drainage, a mix of serous fluid and blood, is expected 1 week post-abdominal surgery during the inflammatory and proliferative healing phases. It indicates normal wound healing, making this the correct interpretation.
Choice B reason: Infection typically causes purulent drainage (thick, yellow-green) with odor or fever, not serosanguineous drainage. The described drainage aligns with normal healing, making infection an incorrect assumption at this stage.
Choice C reason: Hemorrhage involves sanguineous drainage (bright red, heavy blood), not serosanguineous, which is lighter and mixed. The drainage described does not suggest active bleeding, making hemorrhage an incorrect interpretation.
Choice D reason: Serosanguineous drainage is normal and does not warrant immediate surgical intervention unless accompanied by signs like excessive bleeding or dehiscence. This drainage is expected, making surgical intervention unnecessary and incorrect.
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