The physician orders methylprednisolone 40 mg IV (intravenous) q 6 hrs. Available is methylprednisolone 125mg per 1mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? Round your answer to the nearest tenth. (Please Show All Work on Provided scrap paper, enter numerical value only. Do not enter unit of measurement).
The Correct Answer is ["0.3"]
Dose prescribed / Dose available × Volume=Amount to administer
40 mg / 125mg×1ml=0.32
Round to nearest tenth
0.32≈0.30
Correct Answer: 0.3
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Obtain a set of vital signs: While monitoring hemodynamics is essential during an allergic reaction, it is not the immediate priority while the allergen is still entering the bloodstream. Delaying the cessation of the infusion to gather data allows more of the provocative agent to reach systemic circulation. Vital signs are the second step after stopping the trigger.
B. Stop the antibiotic infusion: The client is exhibiting classic signs of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, which can rapidly progress to life-threatening anaphylaxis. The most critical intervention is to immediately terminate the exposure to the offending pharmacological agent. This limits further mast cell degranulation and the systemic release of histamine and leukotrienes.
C. Notify the healthcare provider: Communication with the provider is necessary to obtain orders for epinephrine or antihistamines, but it must follow the physical intervention of stopping the drug. The nurse must prioritize patient safety by halting the infusion before leaving the bedside or picking up the phone. Immediate action prevents further physiological deterioration.
D. Initiate oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 LPM: Oxygen therapy addresses the symptom of wheezing but does not stop the underlying immunological cascade caused by the piperacillin. While respiratory support may be required, it is a supportive measure that follows the removal of the primary allergen. Stopping the infusion is the only action that halts the cause of the distress.
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A. Slough noted at the center of the wound: Slough consists of non-viable cellular debris and fibrin that provides a medium for bacterial growth and physically blocks the formation of new granulation tissue. Its presence indicates that the wound is stuck in the inflammatory phase and cannot progress to proliferation. It requires debridement to resume healing.
B. Maceration present at the base of the heel: Maceration occurs when the skin is exposed to excessive moisture for prolonged periods, causing it to become soft, white, and fragile. This compromises the integrity of the periwound skin and makes it susceptible to further breakdown or infection. It indicates poor management of wound exudate or moisture.
C. No indications of undermining present: Undermining is a negative finding where tissue destruction occurs underneath the intact skin at the wound margins. The "absence" of undermining is a positive sign that the wound is not tunneling or expanding deeper into the surrounding structures. It reflects a more stable and localized wound bed.
D. Absence of biofilm after mechanical debridement: Biofilms are complex communities of bacteria that are highly resistant to antibiotics and host immune responses. Removing them via debridement is a positive therapeutic outcome that allows the body's natural healing processes to take over. The absence of biofilm indicates a cleaner, more receptive wound bed.
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