The PMHNP has just diagnosed a 21-year-old unmarried man with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). In which one of the following ways do men with OCD differ from women with the disorder?
Men are more likely to have higher levels of severity.
Men are more likely to have lower levels of severity.
Men are more likely to spontaneously recover.
Men tend to develop OCD earlier in life.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Severity does not consistently differ between sexes; men are not uniformly more severe.
Choice B reason: Severity is variable and not reliably lower in men.
Choice C reason: Spontaneous recovery is rare in OCD and does not differ by sex.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Men tend to have an earlier age of onset, often during childhood or adolescence, while women more commonly present in adulthood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Fluoxetine is an SSRI that may be used off-label for PTSD, but it is not specifically FDA-approved for this condition.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Sertraline is an SSRI and one of the first-line medications approved by the FDA for PTSD treatment, demonstrating efficacy in reducing core PTSD symptoms.
Choice C reason: Mirtazapine is not FDA-approved for PTSD but may be used off-label to target sleep disturbances or depressive symptoms.
Choice D reason: Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer used primarily for bipolar disorder and not FDA-approved for PTSD management.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: It is true that Bell’s palsy often resolves spontaneously in many patients, with approximately 70% recovering fully without intervention. This highlights the typically self-limiting nature of the disorder.
Choice B reason: Diabetes, pregnancy, preeclampsia, obesity, and hypertension are recognized risk factors for Bell’s palsy. These conditions may contribute to microvascular changes or immune responses that trigger the facial nerve dysfunction.
Choice C reason: Most cases of Bell’s palsy occur in adults between the ages of 15 and 60, not predominantly before 18 years. This statement is incorrect and therefore the correct choice for this question.
Choice D reason: Bell’s palsy can affect anyone regardless of sex or race, and it may occur at any age, supporting its classification as a non-discriminatory neurological disorder.
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