The PMHNP has just diagnosed a 21-year-old unmarried man with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). In which one of the following ways do men with OCD differ from women with the disorder?
Men are more likely to have higher levels of severity.
Men are more likely to have lower levels of severity.
Men are more likely to spontaneously recover.
Men tend to develop OCD earlier in life.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Severity does not consistently differ between sexes; men are not uniformly more severe.
Choice B reason: Severity is variable and not reliably lower in men.
Choice C reason: Spontaneous recovery is rare in OCD and does not differ by sex.
Choice D reason: This is correct. Men tend to have an earlier age of onset, often during childhood or adolescence, while women more commonly present in adulthood.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Trichotillomania involves hair pulling often due to tension or boredom without a preoccupation with symmetry. In this case, the pulling is driven by a compulsion for symmetry, making this diagnosis less appropriate.
Choice B reason: BDD involves distress over perceived physical flaws. While the patient is concerned about asymmetry, the hair pulling is specifically performed to alleviate compulsive distress, consistent with OCD rather than BDD.
Choice C reason: Delusional disorder, somatic type, involves a fixed false belief about bodily functions or appearance. The patient acknowledges the asymmetry is "all in her head," indicating insight, which rules out delusional disorder.
Choice D reason: OCD is characterized by obsessions (distressing thoughts) and compulsions (ritualized behaviors to alleviate distress). The patient’s repetitive eyebrow tweezing to achieve symmetry despite knowing it is unnecessary reflects a compulsion, confirming OCD.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: T1DM is autoimmune in origin, where immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic beta cells leads to insulin deficiency.
Choice B reason: T1DM often manifests in childhood or adolescence, consistent with onset prior to age 20.
Choice C reason: Destruction of pancreatic beta cells results in lack of insulin production, explaining hyperglycemia in T1DM.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect. First-line treatment for T1DM is insulin therapy, not metformin, which is used for type 2 diabetes.
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