The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

At what time would you like to begin the induction?

What is the client's Bishop score?

I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.

I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success.

Choice B rationale

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.

Choice C rationale

Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.

Choice D rationale

Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Methylergonovine (Methergine) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage by stimulating uterine contractions. It is especially useful in cases like this where rapid uterine tone is needed.

Choice B rationale

Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclamptic patients, not to manage postpartum hemorrhage. This choice is incorrect in this context.

Choice C rationale

Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is also used for treating postpartum hemorrhage but is typically a secondary option to methylergonovine and may have more side effects.

Choice D rationale

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is used to replace clotting factors in cases of coagulopathy, not as a primary intervention for postpartum hemorrhage in this patient.

A. Pain. B. Bleeding. C. Warmth. D. Redness.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Vaginal hematomas are usually associated with severe pain due to the accumulation of blood in the tissues.

Choice B rationale

Bleeding might be visible, but hematomas often cause internal accumulation, not external bleeding.

Choice C rationale

Warmth is not typically associated with hematomas; instead, pain and swelling are more common.

Choice D rationale

Redness may occur, but pain is the most consistent symptom.

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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assisting the primary care provider (PCP) with the third stage of a vaginal delivery.The patient is multiparous, experienced a precipitous birth, and has a history of hypertension.Which medical prescription does the nurse anticipate for this patient?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which symptom would the nurse expect to observe in a postpartum client with a vaginal hematoma?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is providing care for a patient in the second phase of labor.After more than 4 hours of pushing, the nurse suspects fetal dystocia.Which is the greatest risk related to the nurse's suspected complication?

A nurse is triaging four clients on the labor and delivery unit.Which of the following actions should be a priority for nursing care?

A client with pre-eclampsia with severe features at 38 weeks' gestation is being induced with IV oxytocin.Which of the following would warrant the nurse to stop the infusion?

A preterm labor client at 30 weeks' gestation reported rupture of membranes 4 hours ago.This was confirmed on examination.The nurse prepares to administer IM dexamethasone.When the client asks why she is receiving the drug, the nurse replies:

Which symptom would the nurse expect to observe in a postpartum client with a vaginal hematoma?

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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?