The public health nurse receives funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse's proposal?
Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
Lead screening for children in low-income housing.
Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Providing supplements like folic acid helps reduce the risk of neural tube defects and promotes maternal-fetal health.
B. Lead screening for children in low-income housing: This is secondary prevention, as it involves early detection of a problem to allow for prompt intervention and reduce complications.
C. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims: This is a tertiary prevention or disaster response measure, aimed at managing the aftermath of an event rather than preventing it.
D. Case management and screening for clients with HIV: This is secondary and tertiary prevention focused on managing an existing condition and minimizing progression or complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A change in the sleep-wake cycle: This is a common and expected effect as ramelteon works by regulating the circadian rhythm through melatonin receptors. It does not typically warrant immediate provider notification.
B. Dizziness reported after initial dose: Dizziness is a known, mild side effect that often resolves with continued use. It should be monitored but does not require urgent reporting unless severe or persistent.
C. Mild sedation: Sedation is an intended pharmacologic effect of ramelteon, helping to induce sleep. Mild sedation is not concerning unless excessive or impairing functioning.
D. Somnambulism: Sleepwalking (somnambulism) is an abnormal and potentially dangerous parasomnia that should be reported immediately. It can result in injury and may indicate the need to discontinue or adjust the medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Change to less anxiety-promoting questions: Adjusting questioning techniques may be helpful later, but it does not address the immediate concern of inappropriate behavior. The nurse must first set clear boundaries to maintain safety and therapeutic structure.
B. Ignore the client's inappropriate behavior: Ignoring such behavior may allow it to escalate or reinforce it as acceptable. Clients with mania often test boundaries, so ignoring may compromise safety and therapeutic rapport.
C. Leave the client's room so she can act out her anxiety: Leaving the client alone while she is disinhibited and potentially unsafe is inappropriate. The nurse has a responsibility to redirect behavior and ensure a safe environment.
D. State it is unacceptable to undress during the interview: Clearly and calmly setting limits is the most appropriate first action. It helps maintain dignity, ensures safety, and models acceptable behavior in a therapeutic manner during a manic episode.
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