A 36-year-old woman is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and asks the NP about her treatment options. Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for RA?
NSAIDs
Methotrexate
Corticosteroid injections
Opioids
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: NSAIDs are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation in RA, but they do not alter the disease course or prevent joint damage. They are considered adjunctive therapy rather than first-line disease-modifying treatment.
Choice B reason: Methotrexate is the cornerstone and first-line disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) for RA. It reduces inflammation, slows disease progression, and prevents joint damage. It has a well-established efficacy and safety profile and is recommended by major rheumatology guidelines as the initial treatment for most patients with RA.
Choice C reason: Corticosteroid injections may be used for localized joint inflammation or as a bridge therapy while waiting for DMARDs to take effect. However, they are not considered first-line long-term treatment due to potential systemic side effects and lack of disease-modifying properties.
Choice D reason: Opioids are not recommended for RA management due to their risk of dependence and lack of anti-inflammatory or disease-modifying effects. They may be used in exceptional cases for severe pain but are not part of standard RA treatment protocols.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Excess dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathway is strongly associated with the positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. This theory forms the basis for the use of antipsychotic medications, which block dopamine receptors to reduce these symptoms.
Choice B reason: Decreased dopamine activity in the mesocortical pathway, not increased, is linked to the negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia. This includes apathy, social withdrawal, and impaired executive function.
Choice C reason: While serotonin may play a modulatory role in schizophrenia, particularly in the mechanism of atypical antipsychotics, it is not the primary neurotransmitter implicated in the core pathophysiology of the disorder.
Choice D reason: Hypofunction of glutamate, particularly at NMDA receptors, has been proposed as a contributing factor to schizophrenia. However, this theory is still under investigation and is not as well-established as the dopamine hypothesis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: HIV is not an autoimmune disorder. Autoimmune diseases involve the immune system attacking the body's own tissues, whereas HIV is a viral infection that targets and destroys immune cells, specifically CD4+ T lymphocytes.
Choice B reason: HIV infects CD4+ T cells and macrophages, leading to progressive depletion of these cells. This impairs both cell-mediated and humoral immunity, rendering the host susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain malignancies. The virus integrates into host DNA and replicates, gradually weakening the immune system.
Choice C reason: Tickborne illnesses such as Lyme disease or babesiosis are unrelated to HIV. They are caused by different pathogens and have distinct transmission routes and pathophysiology.
Choice D reason: HIV is not a nosocomial infection. It is primarily transmitted through blood, sexual contact, and vertical transmission from mother to child. Nosocomial infections are acquired in healthcare settings and typically involve bacteria like MRSA or Pseudomonas.
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