What laboratory value should be monitored for a client prescribed heparin?
Red blood cells
International normalized ratio (INR)
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Hematocrit
The Correct Answer is C
A. Red blood cells: While red blood cell counts provide information about oxygen-carrying capacity and anemia, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effect of heparin or the risk of bleeding due to its use. Monitoring RBCs is not sufficient for safe heparin therapy.
B. International normalized ratio (INR): INR is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. It measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, whereas heparin affects the intrinsic pathway, so INR is not the appropriate laboratory value for heparin monitoring.
C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): PTT measures the effectiveness of the intrinsic and common coagulation pathways, which are directly affected by heparin. Monitoring PTT helps ensure that the client maintains a therapeutic anticoagulation range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clot formation.
D. Hematocrit: Hematocrit reflects the proportion of red blood cells in the blood and can indicate blood loss over time. While important for general assessment, it does not specifically monitor heparin’s anticoagulant effect and is not the primary lab value to guide dosing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
. Hypertension: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used primarily for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. While long-term use can contribute to elevated blood pressure, hypertension itself is not an indication for this medication.
B. Asthma exacerbation: Methylprednisolone is indicated for the management of acute asthma exacerbations because it reduces airway inflammation, improves airflow, and decreases the severity and duration of symptoms. It is commonly used when inhaled therapies are insufficient.
C. Bacterial pneumonia: While corticosteroids may sometimes be used as adjunct therapy in severe bacterial pneumonia, antibiotics are the primary treatment. Methylprednisolone is not indicated as first-line therapy for bacterial infections.
D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus: Type 1 diabetes is managed with insulin therapy. Methylprednisolone does not treat the underlying autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells and can actually worsen glycemic control due to its hyperglycemic effects.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A. A client with an emphysema exacerbation: Clients experiencing an acute exacerbation of emphysema often have increased airway obstruction and difficulty breathing. A small volume nebulizer delivers bronchodilators directly to the lungs, providing rapid relief of bronchospasm and improving oxygenation.
B. A client experiencing an asthma attack: During an asthma attack, airway constriction can be severe. An SVN allows precise delivery of inhaled medications like albuterol, which rapidly dilate the airways and reduce respiratory distress, making it essential for urgent intervention.
C. A client with a common cold and fever: A common cold typically causes mild upper respiratory symptoms such as congestion and runny nose. SVNs are not indicated for routine cold management, as bronchodilator therapy is not necessary in uncomplicated viral infections.
D. A client with significant respiratory symptoms: Clients showing significant respiratory distress, regardless of underlying cause, may benefit from an SVN to administer medications that relieve bronchospasm, decrease airway inflammation, and improve ventilation rapidly.
E. A client with mild seasonal allergies: Mild seasonal allergies usually present with sneezing, watery eyes, and nasal congestion without significant airway obstruction. SVNs are not indicated for mild allergic symptoms, as oral or intranasal antihistamines are sufficient.
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