Which client is most likely suffering from dementia?
An 80-year-old who has been in excellent health until the client was admitted through the emergency department with a severe urinary tract infection and is now very anxious and is threatening staff
A 6-year-old who has just been administered conscious sedation for a closed reduction of a fractured wrist and says that the child's parents have three sets of eyes
A 22-year-old who was involved in a motorcycle crash without wearing a helmet now unable to remember where the client is
A 90-year-old who has experienced progressive mental decline that started with forgetfulness
The Correct Answer is D
Dementia is a chronic, progressive, and irreversible syndrome characterized by a decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily life. Unlike acute conditions, dementia develops over months and years, typically beginning with subtle memory lapses and advancing to global cognitive impairment.
Rationale:
A. This client is likely experiencing delirium. The sudden onset of anxiety and behavioral changes following a severe urinary tract infection (UTI) is a classic presentation of acute delirium in the elderly. Delirium is usually reversible once the underlying medical cause (the infection) is treated.
B. This child is experiencing the effects of conscious sedation. Visual hallucinations are a common side effect of anesthetic agents and represent a temporary, drug-induced alteration in perception rather than a neurodegenerative disorder.
C. This young adult is likely experiencing an acute brain injury or concussion from the motorcycle crash. Disorientation to place following head trauma is an acute neurological event. Although it may result in long-term cognitive deficits, the immediate presentation is traumatic injury, not the progressive decline associated with dementia.
D. This is the classic presentation of dementia. The 90-year-old’s progressive mental decline and its start with forgetfulness align perfectly with the slow, insidious onset of neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's. In this scenario, the timeline and the nature of the symptoms (progressive vs. sudden) are the key indicators for the diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Countertransference occurs when a nurse’s personal emotions, past experiences, or moral judgments are displaced onto a patient. In high-stakes trauma cases involving contributory behavior (such as driving under the influence or reckless negligence), nurses may experience a conflict between their ethical duty to provide care and their personal reaction to the patient's actions. Addressing these feelings through professional supervision is a standard of practice to maintain therapeutic neutrality and prevent the compromise of patient care.
Rationale:
A. Telling a client they are traumatized beyond repair is non-therapeutic and harmful. It violates the nursing principle of beneficence and can induce a sense of hopelessness. A nurse’s role is to support the patient’s physical and psychological stabilization, regardless of the nurse's personal opinion of the patient's past actions.
B. By discussing these feelings with a peer, mentor, or counselor, the nurse can process the emotional burden of the situation in a safe, confidential setting. This allows the nurse to maintain a professional boundary and ensures that their personal judgment does not manifest as neglect or bias during bedside care.
C. Acknowledging judgment directly to the patient is a boundary violation. It shifts the focus of the therapeutic relationship from the patient's needs to the nurse's emotions. This can create a hostile environment, cause the patient to withhold vital clinical information, and ultimately hinder the recovery process.
D. Encouraging a patient to avoid thinking about it is a form of false reassurance and avoidance. This can interfere with the patient’s ability to process the event and may delay the identification of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD). Although the nurse should not force the patient to dwell on the event, they should also not suppress the patient’s natural emotional responses.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Mandated outpatient treatment, or assisted outpatient treatment, is a legal intervention for individuals with severe mental illness who have a history of treatment noncompliance. It targets those at risk for homelessness, incarceration, or frequent hospitalization due to their inability to maintain autonomous psychiatric stability within the community.
Rationale:
A. Living in a stable residential environment with family support generally precludes the need for legal mandates. The client has schizophrenia, but the presence of a support system suggests they are likely managing their condition without the high-risk factors that necessitate court-ordered community intervention.
B. This client represents a high-risk vulnerable population often targeted by mandated programs. The combination of homelessness, mental health instability, and legal involvement for survival crimes typically triggers court-ordered treatment to prevent the revolving door of recidivism and psychiatric crisis.
C. Repeat driving offenses usually result in forensic rehabilitation or substance abuse counseling rather than mandated psychiatric outpatient treatment. Although the behavior is illegal, it falls under addiction services and criminal justice sanctions rather than the specific statutes governing long-term community mental health mandates.
D. Employment instability, while socially disruptive, does not meet the statutory threshold for legal intervention. Quitting jobs is not a safety risk or a criminal act. Therefore, the legal system cannot mandate medical treatment based solely on the client’s professional failures or manic impulsivity.
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