Which drug class does hydralazine belong to?
Angiotensin receptor blocker
Diuretic
Alpha receptor blocker
Vasodilator
The Correct Answer is D
A. Angiotensin receptor blocker: Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) work by blocking angiotensin II receptors to relax blood vessels and reduce blood pressure. Hydralazine does not act on the renin-angiotensin system, so it is not classified as an ARB.
B. Diuretic: Diuretics lower blood pressure by promoting the excretion of sodium and water through the kidneys. Hydralazine does not have diuretic effects and does not alter fluid balance in this way.
C. Alpha receptor blocker: Alpha blockers reduce blood pressure by inhibiting alpha-adrenergic receptors in blood vessels, causing vasodilation. Hydralazine’s mechanism is direct smooth muscle relaxation, not alpha receptor antagonism.
D. Vasodilator: Hydralazine is a direct-acting vasodilator that relaxes arteriolar smooth muscle, leading to decreased systemic vascular resistance and lower blood pressure. It is primarily used in hypertension management and sometimes in heart failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
. Hypertension: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid used primarily for its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects. While long-term use can contribute to elevated blood pressure, hypertension itself is not an indication for this medication.
B. Asthma exacerbation: Methylprednisolone is indicated for the management of acute asthma exacerbations because it reduces airway inflammation, improves airflow, and decreases the severity and duration of symptoms. It is commonly used when inhaled therapies are insufficient.
C. Bacterial pneumonia: While corticosteroids may sometimes be used as adjunct therapy in severe bacterial pneumonia, antibiotics are the primary treatment. Methylprednisolone is not indicated as first-line therapy for bacterial infections.
D. Type 1 diabetes mellitus: Type 1 diabetes is managed with insulin therapy. Methylprednisolone does not treat the underlying autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells and can actually worsen glycemic control due to its hyperglycemic effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client needing stroke prevention: Antiplatelet therapy is indicated for clients at risk of ischemic stroke or recurrent stroke because it helps prevent platelet aggregation, reducing the likelihood of clot formation in the arteries. This intervention is especially beneficial in clients with a history of transient ischemic attacks or atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.
B. A client with a vitamin K deficiency: Vitamin K deficiency primarily affects clotting factor synthesis, leading to a bleeding tendency. Antiplatelet therapy would increase the risk of bleeding in these clients, making it contraindicated rather than indicated.
C. A client with a low platelet count: Clients with thrombocytopenia are already at risk for bleeding, and antiplatelet therapy would further impair clot formation, increasing the potential for hemorrhage. It is therefore avoided in these situations.
D. A client diagnosed with leukemia: Leukemia can be associated with low platelet counts or abnormal platelet function, placing the client at risk for bleeding. Administering antiplatelet therapy could exacerbate hemorrhagic complications rather than provide benefit.
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