Which finding should raise the greatest concern for a nurse who is performing an ear nose and throat (ENT) examination?

A painful ulcerated mucosal area inside the cheek for 1 day.

Stippled gingival margins that adhere firmly to the teeth.

A number of small yellowish-white and raised lesions on the buccal mucosa.

An ulceration under the tongue that has been present for the last three

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   A painful ulcerated mucosal area inside the cheek that has been present for only 1 day is concerning but less alarming in the short term compared to chronic lesions. Acute ulcers can be caused by minor trauma, infections, or canker sores. While it is important to monitor and evaluate these lesions, especially if they persist or worsen, a duration of only 1 day typically suggests it might be related to a transient condition.
B.   Stippled gingival margins that adhere firmly to the teeth can indicate gingival hyperplasia or certain systemic conditions like vitamin deficiencies. While this finding can be concerning and warrants further investigation into oral health or potential systemic issues, it is generally less urgent compared to other findings that may indicate malignancy or severe chronic conditions.

C.   Small yellowish-white lesions on the buccal mucosa could be oral leukoplakia or aphthous ulcers, which can be benign or related to underlying conditions. While these lesions need to be assessed to determine their cause, they are usually less immediately concerning than persistent ulcers that could indicate more serious issues.
D.   An ulceration under the tongue that has been present for three weeks is the most concerning finding. Chronic oral ulcers, especially those persisting for more than two weeks, can be indicative of serious conditions such as oral cancer or other malignancies. Persistent lesions warrant thorough investigation to rule out or address potential malignancy or other significant pathologies.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A history of seasonal allergies and nasal congestion can affect sleep quality due to discomfort or breathing difficulties. While this information is relevant for identifying possible physical factors that might influence sleep, it is not the first piece of data to obtain when trying to understand the overall sleep pattern.
B. The consumption of caffeinated drinks before bedtime can significantly impact sleep quality. Caffeine is a stimulant that can disrupt sleep patterns and contribute to difficulty falling asleep. This assessment is important, but it should follow an initial understanding of the client’s overall sleep schedule and habits to determine how much caffeine might be affecting their sleep.
C. Urinary frequency and nocturia (waking up frequently to urinate during the night) can interfere with sleep and contribute to disturbances. This information is valuable for identifying potential causes of disrupted sleep but is typically assessed after understanding the client’s basic sleep patterns and schedule.
D. Understanding the client’s usual bedtime and time of awakenings provides essential information about their sleep schedule and overall sleep patterns. This data is crucial as it establishes a baseline for assessing the client’s sleep routine and helps identify any deviations or irregularities in their sleep behavior.

A. A 24 hour diet history. B. Status of current appetite. C. History of a recent weight loss. D. Condition of hair, nails, and skin.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While a 24-hour diet history can provide valuable information about a person's dietary intake, it may not accurately reflect their long-term nutritional habits. Additionally, some individuals may underreport or overreport their food intake.
B. A person's current appetite can be affected by various factors, including illness, medication, and emotional state. It may not be a reliable indicator of long-term nutritional status.
C. While weight loss can be a sign of nutritional problems, it is not always indicative of a deficiency. Other factors, such as increased physical activity or illness, can also contribute to weight loss.
D. The condition of hair, nails, and skin can provide valuable clues about a person's nutritional status.
For example, dry, brittle hair and nails, as well as pale or scaly skin, can be signs of nutrient deficiencies such as iron, vitamin B12, or protein deficiency. These visible signs can be more indicative of long-term nutritional deficiencies than other factors.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Which finding should raise the greatest concern for a nurse who is performing an ear nose and throat (ENT) examination?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse assesses a client with a sleep pattern disturbance. In developing a plan of care, what assessment data should the nurse obtain first?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is conducting a physical assessment of a young adult. Which information provides the best indication of the individual's nutritional status?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

While obtaining a health history, a client tells the nurse that he sometimes experiences shortness of breath. The nurse determines that the client's respirations are regular and deep, and his respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What is the best nursing action?

The nurse is assessing a client for goiter and is unable to observe the thyroid gland. Which action should the nurse take?

An older adult client with a history of heart failure (HF) is brought to the clinic by a family member. Which finding(s) confirm to the nurse that the client is experiencing an exacerbation of the HP? Select all that apply.

While the nurse is taking a health history, the client announces, "I don't have time for this. This is a waste of time. I need treatment." Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

A client is concerned about developing carpal tunnel syndrome. Which screening technique should the nurse perform to provide the client with useful information?

In assessing a male client's level of consciousness, the nurse determines that the client does not open his eyes spontaneously. Which should the nurse do next?

Which assessment technique should the nurse use to confirm the presence of papilledema in a client with a rapidly decreasing level of consciousness?

A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?